[PDF and VCE] Free Share 1Y0-301 PDF Exam Preparation Materials with Real Exam Questions

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Newest 1Y0-301 free download exam! Get yourself well prepared for the Popular Exams5 Hotest 1Y0-301 vce dumps Deploying Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update 1Y0-301 vce. With We latest 1Y0-301 exam questions, you’ll pass the Popular Exams5 Apr 07,2022 Hotest 1Y0-301 vce dumps Deploying Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 1Y0-301 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 1Y0-301 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 1Y0-301 dumps.Do you what to see some samples before 1Y0-301 exam? Check the following 1Y0-301 free dumps or download 1Y0-301 dumps here.

Question 1:

A Citrix Engineer is in the process of setting up a remote access solution using self-signed certificates.

To help ensure a secure remote connection, the engineer must install a Root certificate on the __________ and __________. (Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence.)

A. endpoint device

B. StoreFront server

C. Domain Controllers

D. Delivery Controllers

Correct Answer: AB


Question 2:

Which two of the listed elements does a Citrix Engineer need to verify when adding a Delivery Controller to an existing XenDesktop site? (Choose two.)

A. Citrix Policies

B. Windows Firewall

C. Database platform version

D. Site database permissions E. OS version of Server and Desktop OS machines

Correct Answer: BD


Question 3:

Which built-in XenDesktop administrator role provides the minimum permissions needed to manage Active Directory computer objects in Citrix Studio?

A. Full Administrator

B. Host Administrator

C. Delivery Group Administrator

D. Machine Catalog Administrator

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

When deploying Provisioning Services without PXE services, which two DHCP scope options must a Citrix Engineer configure? (Choose two.)

A. 67: Bootfile Name

B. 44: Name Servers

C. 61: Client Identifier

D. 13: Host Name String

E. 66: Boot Server Host Name

Correct Answer: CD


Question 5:

During the testing of a NetScaler high availability setup where two-factor authentication has been verified, new user connections are failing due to authentication issues.

What should a Citrix Engineer do to resolve this issue?

A. Ensure that the SSL Gateway VIP is resolvable in DNS.

B. Ensure that the RADIUS server hostname is resolvable in DNS.

C. Ensure that the NetScaler LDAP account has permission to view records in Active Directory.

D. Ensure that the NSIP addresses of both NetScalers are configured as clients on the RADIUS server.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

To which certificate store should a Citrix Engineer import a certificate from the vCenter to the Delivery Controller?

A. Personal

B. Trusted People

C. Enterprise Trust

D. Trusted Root Certificate Authorities

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Scenario: A Citrix Engineer created a Delivery Group containing 1000 virtual desktops. The engineer sets the power management settings to ensure that 900 desktops are available during peak times, and only 10 during off-peak hours as fewer users log in. The engineer discovers that even in off-peak hours, 100 or more desktops are available.

Which PowerShell cmdlet should the engineer use to set the desired power behavior?

A. Set-BrokerCatalog

B. Set-BrokerDesktopGroup

C. Set-BrokerDesktopPowerAction

D. Set-BrokerDesktopPowerActionMetaData

Correct Answer: B


Pass Guarantee 1z0-062 Exam By Taking New 1z0-062 VCE And PDF Braindumps

We ensures to provide the most update 1z0-062 pdf with the most accurate answers. We Oracle Database Application Development {keywords} are the most complete and authoritative latest 1z0-062 dumps with which one can pass the Oracle Database Application Development Latest 1z0-062 QAs exam in an easy way. Preparing for Oracle Database Application Development Apr 06,2022 Newest 1z0-062 vce Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration exam is really a tough task to accomplish. But We will simplified the process.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 1z0-062 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 1z0-062 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 1z0-062 dumps.Although questions are from 1z0-062 free dumps, the validity and accuracy of the 1z0-062 dumps are absolutely guaranteed.

Question 1:

Examine the parameters for your database instance:

You execute the following command:

SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NOGUARANTEE;

Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.

B. Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to lack of space in the undo tablespace.

C. You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.

D. An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo before that time has elapsed.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

A user establishes a connection to a database instance by using an Oracle Net connection. You want to ensure the following:

1.

The user account must be locked after five unsuccessful login attempts.

2.

Data read per session must be limited for the user.

3.

The user cannot have more than three simultaneous sessions.

4.

The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes session idle time before being logged off automatically.

How would you accomplish this?

A. by granting a secure application role to the user

B. by implementing Database Resource Manager

C. by using Oracle Label Security options

D. by assigning a profile to the user

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database such that all users in the ORCL database may access tables only from the SCOTT schema in the HQ database. SCOTT\’s password is TIGER. The service mane “HQ” is used to connect to the remote HQ database.

Which command would you execute to create the database link?

A. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING \’HQ\’;

B. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CURRENT_USER USING `HQ\’;

C. CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING \’HQ\’;

D. CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING \’HQ\’;

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics completes?

A. The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.

B. The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.

C. The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.

D. The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the maintenance window opens.

Correct Answer: D

The stop_on_window_close attribute controls whether the GATHER_STATS_JOB continues when the maintenance window closes. The default setting for the stop_on_window_close attribute is TRUE, causing Scheduler to terminate GATHER_STATS_JOB when the maintenance window closes. The remaining objects are then processed in the next maintenance window.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14211/stats.htm#g49431


Question 5:

You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the following

specifications:

Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier.

The number of concurrent user connections will be high.

The database will have mixed workload, with the execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night.

Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?

A. a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation

B. a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled

C. a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled

D. a default database configuration

Correct Answer: C

References:


Question 6:

Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between data files and logical database structures? (Choose two.)

A. A segment cannot span data files.

B. A data file can belong to only one tablespace.

C. An extent cannot span data files.

D. The size of an Oracle data block in a data file should be the same as the size of an OS block.

Correct Answer: BC

A single extent can never span data files. https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/logical.htm#CNCPT1095


Question 7:

Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?

A. It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).

B. It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.

C. It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.

D. It writes when a user commits a transaction.

Correct Answer: D

References:

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14220/process.htm (see log writer process (LGWR))


Question 8:

Which two tasks can be performed on an external table? (Choose two.)

A. partitioning the table

B. creating an invisible index

C. updating the table by using an update statement

D. creating a public synonym

E. creating a view

Correct Answer: DE

You can, for example select, join, or sort external table data. You can also create views and synonyms for external tables. However, no DML operations (UPDATE, INSERT, or DELETE) are possible, and no indexes can be created, on external tables.

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/tables013.htm#ADMIN01507


Question 9:

Which three statements are true about a job chain? (Choose three.)

A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.

B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.

C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.

D. It cannot have more than one dependency.

E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 10:

Which three factors influence the optimizer\’s choice of an execution plan? (Choose three.)

A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter

B. operating system (OS) statistics

C. cardinality estimates

D. object statistics in the data dictionary

E. fixed baselines

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 11:

Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is displayed.

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.

B. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHER_GROUPS fails with an error.

C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to resource management.

D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.

E. A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the session will be queued.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 12:

Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?

A. The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.

B. All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn and the SCN is stored in the control file.

C. The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.

D. The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Examine the structure of the sales table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.

You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high water mark. What should you ensure before the start of the operation?

A. Row movement is enabled.

B. Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.

C. No queries are running on this table.

D. Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.

E. No pending transaction exists on the table.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which task would you recommend before using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) to upgrade a single-instance Oracle 11g R2 database to Oracle Database 12c?

A. shutting down the database instance that is being upgraded

B. executing the catctl.pl script to run the upgrade processes in parallel

C. running the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool

D. copying the listener.ora file to the new ORACLE_HOME

Correct Answer: C

References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e23633/upgrade.htm#UPGRD12395


Question 15:

Your database is open and the listener LISTENER is up. You issue the command:

LSNRCTL> RELOAD

What is the effect of reload on sessions that were originally established by listener?

A. Only sessions based on static listener registrations are disconnected.

B. Existing connections are not disconnected; however, they cannot perform any operations until the listener completes the re-registration of the database instance and service handlers.

C. The sessions are not affected and continue to function normally.

D. All the sessions are terminated and active transactions are rolled back.

Correct Answer: C


New Released Free Update of 1Z0-082 Exam Practice Materials

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Latest 1Z0-082 practice exam! Get yourself well prepared for the Oracle Database Newest 1Z0-082 practice Oracle Database Administration I exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update 1Z0-082 dumps. With We latest 1Z0-082 new questions, you’ll pass the Oracle Database Apr 05,2022 Latest 1Z0-082 vce dumps Oracle Database Administration I exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 1Z0-082 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 1Z0-082 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 1Z0-082 dumps.Real questions from 1Z0-082 free dumps. Download demo of 1Z0-082 dumps to check the validity.

Question 1:

Which statement is true about the INTERSECT operator used in compound queries?

A. Multiple INTERSECT operators are not possible in the same SQL statement

B. It processes NULLs in the selected columns

C. INTERSECT is of lower precedence than UNION or UNION ALL

D. It ignores NULLs

Correct Answer: B

SET operators all have the same priority in Oracle Database. NULL values are processed with set operators


Question 2:

Which three statements are true about advanced connection options supported by Oracle Net for connection to Oracle Database instances? (Choose three.)

A. Connect Time Failover requires the use of Transparent Application Failover (TAF)

B. Source Routing requires the use of a name server

C. Source Routing enables the use of Connection Manager (CMAN) which enables network traffic to be routed through a firewall

D. Load Balancing can balance the number of connections to dispatchers when using a Shared Server configuration

E. Load Balancing requires the use of a name server

F. Connect Time Failover requires the connect string to have two or more listener addresses configured

Correct Answer: CDF

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/network.112/e41945/advcfg.htm#NETAG013


Question 3:

Which two statements are true about date/time functions in a session where NLS_DATE_FORMAT is set to DD-MON-YYYY HH24:MI:SS? (Choose two.)

A. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date and time as SYSDATE with additional details of fractional seconds

B. SYSDATE can be queried only from the DUAL table

C. CURRENT_DATE returns the current date and time as per the session time zone

D. SYSDATE can be used in expressions only if the default date format is DD-MON-RR

E. SYSDATE and CURRENT_DATE return the current date and time set for the operating system of the database server

F. CURRENT_TIMESTAMP returns the same date as CURRENT_DATE

Correct Answer: CF


Question 4:

A database is configured to use automatic undo management with temporary undo enabled.

An UPDATE is executed on a temporary table.

Where is the UNDO stored?

A. in the undo tablespace

B. in the SYSAUX tablespace

C. in the SGA

D. in the PGA

E. in the temporary tablespace

Correct Answer: E

Oracle database 12c Release 1 (12.1) introduced the concept of temporary undo, allowing the undo segments for global temporary tables to be stored in the temporary tablespace. This allows global temporary tables to be used in physical standby databases and read-only databases, as well as removing the need to create redo.

16.7 Managing Temporary Undo By default, undo records for temporary tables are stored in the undo tablespace and are logged in the redo, which is the same way undo is managed for persistent tables. However, you can use the TEMP_UNDO_ENABLED initialization parameter to separate undo for temporary tables from undo for persistent tables. When this parameter is set to TRUE, the undo for temporary tables is called temporary undo.

16.7.1 About Managing Temporary Undo Temporary undo records are stored in the database\’s temporary tablespaces and thus are not logged in the redo log. When temporary undo is enabled, some of the segments used by the temporary tablespaces store the temporary undo, and these segments are called temporary undo segments.

Reference: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_temp_undo_enabled.htm Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/undo.htm#ADMIN11479


Question 5:

You have been tasked to create a table for a banking application.

One of the columns must meet three requirements:

1.

Be stored in a format supporting date arithmetic without using conversion functions

2.

Store a loan period of up to 10 years

3.

Be used for calculating interest for the number of days the loan remains unpaid

Which data type should you use?

A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH

B. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND

C. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIMEZONE

D. TIMESTAMP

E. TIMESTAMP WITH TIMEZONE

Correct Answer: B

Since the third requirement for banking application is

\’Be used for calculating interest for the number of days the loan remains unpaid\’

So, Data Type \’INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND\’ must be used to calculate duration in number of days.


Question 6:

In the spfile of a single instance database, LOCAL_LISTENER is set to LISTENER_1.

The TNSNAMES.ORA file in $ORACLE_HOME/network/admin in the database home contains:

Which statement is true?

A. Dynamic service registration cannot be used for this database instance

B. The LREG process registers services dynamically with the LISTENER_1 listener

C. LISTENER_1 must also be defined in the LISTENER.ORA file to enable dynamic service registration

D. There are two listeners named LISTENER and LISTENER_1 running simultaneously using port 1521 on the same host as the database instances

E. The definition for LISTENER_1 requires a CONNECT_DATA section to enable dynamic service registration

Correct Answer: B

The listener forwards client requests to supported services. These services are dynamically registered with the listener. This dynamic registration feature is called service registration. The registration is performed by the Listener Registration (LREG) process. Dynamic service registration does not require any manual configuration in the listener.ora file.

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/NETAG/listenercfg.htm#NETAG292


Question 7:

Which two statements are true regarding a SAVEPOINT? (Choose two.)

A. Rolling back to a SAVEPOINT can undo a CREATE INDEX statement

B. Rolling back to a SAVEPOINT can undo a TRUNCATE statement

C. Only one SAVEPOINT may be issued in a transaction

D. A SAVEPOINT does not issue a COMMIT

E. Rolling back to a SAVEPOINT can undo a DELETE statement

Correct Answer: DE


Question 8:

Which three functions are performed by dispatchers in a shared server configuration? (Choose three.)

A. writing inbound request to the common request queue from all shared server connections

B. checking for outbound shared server responses on the common outbound response queue

C. receiving inbound requests from processes using shared server connections

D. sending each connection input request to the appropriate shared server input queue

E. broadcasting shared server session responses back to requesters on all connections

F. sending shared server session responses back to requesters on the appropriate connection

Correct Answer: ACF

Ref: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/manproc001.htm#ADMIN11168 An ***idle shared server process picks up*** the virtual circuit from the common queue


Question 9:

Which two statements are true about the SET VERIFY ON command? (Choose two.)

A. It can be used only in SQL*Plus

B. It displays values for variables used only in the WHERE clause of a query

C. It can be used in SQL Developer and SQL*Plus

D. It displays values for variables created by the DEFINE command

E. It displays values for variables prefixed with andand

Correct Answer: CD


Question 10:

Which three statements are true about a self join? (Choose three.)

A. The ON clause must be used

B. The query must use two different aliases for the table

C. It must be an equijoin

D. It must be an inner join

E. The ON clause can be used

F. It can be an outer join

Correct Answer: BEF


Question 11:

You want to write a query that prompts for two column names and the WHERE condition each time it is executed in a session but only prompts for the table name the first time it is executed.

The variables used in your query are never undefined in your session.

Which query can be used?

A. SELECT andandcol1, andandcol2 FROM andtable WHERE andandcondition = andandcond;

B. SELECT andcol1, andcol2 FROM andandtable WHERE andcondition;

C. SELECT andcol1, andcol2 FROM “andtable” WHERE andcondition;

D. SELECT `andandcol1\’, `andandcol2\’ FROM andtable WHERE `andandcondition\’ = `andcond\’;

E. SELECT andandcol1, andandcol2 FROM andtable WHERE andandcondition;

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table: You want to display details of all customers who reside in cities starting with the letter D followed by at least two characters.

Which query can be used?

A. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city LIKE `D_%\’;

B. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city = `%D_\’;

C. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city LIKE `D_\’;

D. SELECT * FROM customers WHERE city = `D_%\’;

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Examine this command:

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. DML may be performed on tables with one or more extents in this data file during the execution of this command.

B. The tablespace containing SALES1.DBF must be altered READ ONLY before executing the command.

C. The tablespace containing SALES1.DBF must be altered OFFLINE before executing the command.

D. If Oracle Managed Files (OMF) is used, then the file is renamed but moved to DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST.

E. The file is renamed and stored in the same location

Correct Answer: AE

Queries and DML and DDL operations can be performed while the data file is being moved, for example: 1-SELECT statements against tables and partitions 2-Creation of tables and indexes 3- Rebuilding of indexes Other notes: 1- If objects are compressed while the data file is moved, the compression remains the same. 2- You do not have to shut down the database or take the data file offline while you move a data file to

another

location, disk, or storage system.

3- You can omit the TO clause only when an Oracle-managed file is used. In this case, the

DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST initialization parameter should be set to indicate the new location.

4-If the REUSE option is specified, the existing file is overwritten.

note: The REUSE keyword indicates the new file should be created even if it already exists.

5-If the KEEP clause is specified, the old file will be kept after the move operation. The KEEP clause is not

allowed

if the source file is an Oracle-managed file.


Question 14:

Which three statements are true about dropping and unused columns in an Oracle database? (Choose three.)

A. A primary key column referenced by another column as a foreign key can be dropped if using the CASCADE option.

B. An UNUSED column\’s space is reclaimed automatically when the block containing that column is next queried.

C. An UNUSED column\’s space is reclaimed automatically when the row containing that column is next queried.

D. Partition key columns cannot be dropped.

E. A DROP COLUMN command can be rolled back

F. A column that is set to UNUSED still counts towards the limit of 1000 columns per table

Correct Answer: ADF

Answer A is RIGHT: Oders is Parent table with PRIMARY KEY ord_no, Order_items is child table which ord_no is REFERENCE KEY that reference ord_no of Parent table, now drop PRIMARY KEY on Orders by command: ALTER TABLE orders DROP COLUMN ORD_NO CASCADE CONSTRAINTS; Answer D is RIGHT: ORA-12984: cannot drop partitioning column Answer F is RIGHT: Unused Columns Count against 1000-column Table Limit Causing ORA-01792 on Compressed Table (Doc ID 2259600.1) and “ORA-01792: Maximum Number Of Columns In A Table Or View Is 1000” AND HIDDEN_COLUMN name is recreated with date and timestamp (Doc ID 2624150.1)


Question 15:

Which two statements are true regarding Oracle database space management within blocks managed by Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM)? (Choose two.)

A. PCTFREE defaults to 10% for all blocks in all segments for all compression methods

B. ASSM assigns blocks to one of four fullness categories based on what percentage of the block is allocated for rows

C. Update operations always attempt to find blocks with free space appropriate to the length of the row being updated

D. Insert operations always attempt to find blocks with free space appropriate to the length of the row being inserted

E. A block will always be eligible for inserts if the row is short enough to fit into the block

Correct Answer: BD

Characteristics of Bitmap Segment Management

Bitmap space management uses four bits inside each data block header to indicate the amount of available space in the data block. Unlike traditional space management with a fixed relink and unlink threshold, bitmap space managements allow Oracle to compare the actual row space for an INSERT with the actual available space on the data block. This enables better reuse of the available free space especially for objects with rows of highly varying size. Here are the values inside the four-bit space:

1.

Value Meaning

2.

0000 Unformatted Block

3.

0001 Block is logically full

4.

0010 <25% free space

5.

0011 >25% but <50% free space

6.

0100 > 50% but <75% free space

7.

0101 >75% free space

Table 1: Bitmap value meanings.


Pass 3V0-21.21 Exam By Practicing Latest 3V0-21.21 VCE and PDF Braindumps

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Mar 31,2022 Newest 3V0-21.21 practice exam! Get yourself well prepared for the VCAP-DCV Design 2021 Newest 3V0-21.21 free download Advanced Design VMware vSphere 7.x exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update 3V0-21.21 exam questions. With We latest 3V0-21.21 new questions, you’ll pass the VCAP-DCV Design 2021 Hotest 3V0-21.21 vce dumps Advanced Design VMware vSphere 7.x exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest 3V0-21.21 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the 3V0-21.21 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our 3V0-21.21 dumps.These questions are from 3V0-21.21 free dumps. All questions in 3V0-21.21 dumps are from the latest 3V0-21.21 real exams.

Question 1:

Which two of the listed requirements would be classified as performance non-functional requirements? (Choose two.)

A. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a recovery time objective of 30 minutes

B. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a minimum throughput of 400 MB/s

C. The vSphere platform must be able to provide N 1 redundancy

D. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a maximum read latency of 15 ms

E. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a service-level agreement (SLA) of 99,9%

Correct Answer: AD


Question 2:

An architect will be taking over control of a former Linux server fleet and repurposing the hardware into a new vSphere cluster. The current environment is already connected to the network but the hosts do not have any local disks. Since the fleet hardware is uniform, the architect can use a single ESXi image. All hosts within the cluster have the same CPU and memory capacity.

Which ESXi deployment method should the architect use?

A. Stateless cached vSphere Auto Deploy

B. Stateless vSphere Auto Deploy

C. Manual install of each ESXi host with an image from USB

D. Stateful vSphere Auto Deploy

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

An architect is finalizing the design for a new vCenter Server High Availability deployment.

What is one thing the architect must document in the design?

A. The load balancing algorithm used by the Management Distributed Virtual Switches (DVS)

B. The SSH configuration settings for the vCenter Server\’s active node

C. The vCenter Management Network IPv4 addresses for the witness node vCenter Server

D. The details of each of the vCenter Server licenses for active, passive and witness nodes

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

An architect is designing a new VMware solution for a customer that has a number of different resource

profiles.

The following are the business requirements for the design:

The solution must support virtual machines with the following storage profiles:

-Write-intensive

-Backup

-Write-Once-Read-Many (WORM) archive

The solution must support migration of virtual machine disks between storage profiles.

The WORM archive data must be located at an isolated secure site.

The backup storage array must only be connected to a backup media server.

All data should be recoverable from backup.

Which design decision should the architect make to meet the business requirements?

A. The solution will leverage a single storage array for the WORM archive and write-intensive storage profiles

B. The solution will leverage the same array for the backup and write-intensive storage profiles

C. The solution will leverage a different array for each storage profile

D. The solution will leverage a single storage array for all storage profiles

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

An architect is preparing a design for a company planning digital transformation. During the requirements

gathering workshop, the following requirements (REQ) and constraints (CON) are identified:

REQ01 The platform must host different types of workloads including applications that must be compliant

with internal security standard.

REQ02 The infrastructure must initially run 100 virtual machines.

REQ03 Ten of the virtual machines must be compliant with internal security standard.

REQ04 The internal security standard specifies logical network separation for in-scope applications.

CON01 The customer has already purchased the licenses as part of another project.

CON02 The customer has five physical servers that must be reused.

Additionally, based on resource requirements, four physical servers will be enough to run all workloads.

Which recommendation should the architect make to meet requirements while minimizing project costs?

A. Use Network I/O Control to ensure the internal security zone has higher share value

B. Purchase additional servers and plan separate, isolated clusters for workloads that must be compliant with internal security

C. Use a single cluster and ensure that different security zones are separated at least with dedicated VLANs and firewall

D. Use a single cluster and configure DRS anti-affinity rules to ensure internal security compliant virtual machines cannot migrate between ESXi hosts.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

An architect is designing the expansion of an existing vSphere 7 environment. The customer is requesting

a design for a new cluster to support the anticipated future business growth. The requirements specified

for the existing environment design must be considered when designing the new cluster.

The existing design has the following requirements:

REQ01 The environment has an availability target of 99.5% for all infrastructure.

REQ02 The recovery time objective (RTO) for Tier 1 virtual machines is one hour.

REQ03 Windows and Linux virtual machines must reside on separate clusters.

REQ04 Access to the management cluster within the environment must be controlled.

Which of the listed requirements would be classified as a functional requirement?

A. The environment has an availability target of 99.5% for all infrastructure

B. The recovery time objective (RTO) for Tier 1 virtual machines is one hour

C. Access to the management cluster within the environment must be controlled

D. Windows and Linux virtual machines must reside on separate clusters

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which two of the listed requirements would be classified as manageability non-functional requirements? (Choose two.)

A. ESXi clusters must scale when compute resources are sustained above 70% for five business days

B. vSphere Fault Tolerance must be supported to improve application uptime

C. ESXi host updates must be installed within one week of release

D. The vSphere environment must support administrator password rotation

E. ESXi clusters must scale to 500 concurrent virtual machines

Correct Answer: CE


Question 8:

An architect is designing a new vSphere environment to meet the following requirements:

The environment must support 5,000 virtual machines.

The environment will be built initially using 350 hosts.

Which vCenter Server appliance deployment size should the architect specify for the design?

A. Large

B. Small

C. Tiny

D. Medium

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

An architect is designing a new greenfield environment with 600 ESXi hosts in an automated fashion. The engineering department already has a PXE Boot server, TFTP server, and DHCP server set up with an NFS mount for their current Linux servers.

The architect must be able to demonstrate and meet a security requirement to have all infrastructure processes separated.

Which recommendation should the architect make for the ESXi host deployment?

A. Request an isolated network segment to use and dedicate it to Auto Deploy functions

B. Ask the business to expand the engineering environment to service the virtual environment as well

C. Request a common shared network with flexible security measures to accommodate different auto deployment options

D. Deploy each ESXi host individually and document it to satisfy security requirements

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

An architect is designing a new vSphere platform to meet a list of requirements from the security team.

Which two requirements would be classified as non-functional requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Migration of virtual machines between hosts must be encrypted

B. Log information must be verbose to support incident resolution

C. Critical events generated within the platform must be logged to an external Syslog service

D. Data integrity must be ensured

E. A common content library must be maintained across all data centers

Correct Answer: BC


Question 11:

An architect is finalizing the design for a new vSphere platform based on the following information:

All Windows virtual machines will be hosted on a dedicated cluster for licensing purposes.

All Linux virtual machines will be hosted on a dedicated cluster for licensing purposes.

All management virtual machines will be hosted on a dedicated cluster.

A total of ten physical sites will be used to host virtual machines.

In the event of one physical datacenter becoming unavailable, the manageability of the virtual

infrastructure in the remaining data centers should not be impacted.

Access to configure the management virtual machines via vCenter Server must be controlled through the

management Active Directory domain.

Access to configure the Windows and Linux virtual machines must be controlled through the resource

Active Directory domain.

The management and resource Active Directory domains are part of separate Active Directory forests and

do not have any trusts between them.

The design will use Active Directory with Integrated Windows Authentication.

How should the architect document the vCenter Server configuration for this design?

A. Deploy a vCenter server for the management cluster. Deploy a vCenter Server for all remaining clusters. Create a shared SSO domain for each physical site.

B. Deploy a vCenter Server for the management cluster. Deploy a vCenter Server for all remaining clusters. Create a shared SSO domain across all physical sites.

C. Deploy a vCenter Server for the management cluster with a dedicated SSO domain. Deploy a vCenter Server for all remaining clusters and use a dedicated SSO domain for each physical site.

D. Deploy a vCenter Server for the management cluster with a dedicated SSO domain. Deploy a vCenter Server for all remaining clusters and use a dedicated SSO domain into a single physical site.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

An architect is reviewing a physical storage design. The customer has specified that storage DRS will be used for ease of operational management for capacity and performance.

Which recommendation should the architect include in the design?

A. Create smaller datastores to balance space with Storage DRS

B. Use a larger number of storage profiles (varied disk speeds and RAID levels) to improve performance

C. Create larger datastores to balance space with Storage DRS

D. Create more datastores within each Storage DRS cluster to balance space and performance

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

An architect is tasked with planning the design of a new vSphere environment. When commissioned, this environment will be used to migrate an existing set of virtual machines.

An inventory of the existing infrastructure, including configured vCPU, RAM and storage sizes has been provided.

In order for each virtual machine to be migrated, which two data sources with peak and average utilization data are required for sizing? (Choose two.)

A. %Ready

B. Disk Write latency

C. CPU

D. Ballooned memory

E. IOPS

Correct Answer: BE


Question 14:

Which design decision must be included in a design to allow for the deployment of a minimum supported configuration of vCenter High Availability (HA)?

A. A new subnet will be provisioned for vCenter HA services

B. A vSphere cluster will consist of more than three nodes

C. The deployed vCenter Server will be Tiny

D. The vCenter HA network will support a latency of less than 50 ms

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

During a requirements gathering workshop, the customer shares the following about their existing ESXi

host virtual networking infrastructure:

The customer confirms that:

Each ESXi host has approximately 200 virtual machines.

They want to maximize the number of concurrent virtual machine migrations.

When placing a host in maintenance mode, it takes a long time to evacuate the virtual machines.

Which two recommendations should the architect make in order to help the customer overcome their

challenge? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the network to use MTU for the VMotion VMKernel to 1,600 bytes

B. Configure the network to use MTU for the VMotion VMKernel to 9,000 bytes

C. Create an additional standard switch with pNIC3 to use for vMotion

D. Use the 3 pNICs and bundle them in a link aggregation group (LAG) configuration

E. Use 10 GbE NICs instead of 1 GbE

Correct Answer: AD


[Latest Version] Easily Pass c2010-653 Exam With Updated c2010-653 Preparation Materials

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Latest c2010-653 free download exam! Get yourself well prepared for the IBM Certified Associate Application Developer Hotest c2010-653 pdf Fundamentals of IBM TRIRIGA Application Platform V3.2.1 Application Development exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update c2010-653 exam dumps. With We latest c2010-653 pdf, you’ll pass the IBM Certified Associate Application Developer Mar 30,2022 Newest c2010-653 pdf dumps Fundamentals of IBM TRIRIGA Application Platform V3.2.1 Application Development exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest c2010-653 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the c2010-653 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our c2010-653 dumps.These questions are from c2010-653 free dumps. All questions in c2010-653 dumps are from the latest c2010-653 real exams.

Question 1:

A custom section action can call what type of workflow?

A. System

B. Subflow

C. Synchronous

D. Asynchronous

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

What are two managed objects within the Administration Console?

A. Data Modeler

B. Agent Manager

C. Cache Manager

D. Report Manager

E. Event Scheduler

Correct Answer: BC


Question 3:

Which field name represents a custom Classification Rollup based on the naming convention defined in the guide: Application Building for the IBM TRIRIGA Application Platform 3?

A. triMoreCR

B. cstMoreCR

C. triRequiredCL

D. cstRequiredCL

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What happens when a related portal section is deleted from the Related Portal Section library?

A. It requires changes in the Security Manager.

B. It permanently deletes the section from the system.

C. It removes the section as an option for users of the particular portal.

D. It stays on the user\’s portal until the next time the system is restarted.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

When creating a new object migration package, what is a valid Create Mode option?

A. By Date

B. By Modified By

C. By Object Type

D. By Object Name

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What is a valid form name based upon the Application Building for the IBM TRIRIGA Application Platform 3guide?

A. cstform#1

B. MylstFormcst

C. cstMyFirstForm

D. cstMy First Form

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

After making changes to a portal, what actions are required for the user to see the changes?

A. clear the browser cache

B. sign out and sign back in

C. bounce the application server

D. clear the application cache from the admin console

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which statement is true regarding the inclusion of Control Number in a Data Integrator template?

A. It should always be included.

B. It should only be used to update existing records.

C. It prevents the import process from updating records.

D. It is necessary to guarantee the creation of unique records.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which statement is true regarding an onChange event?

A. It cannot pop up another form.

B. It cannot pop up a query result.

C. It cannot trigger a state family action.

D. It cannot create a permanent association.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

How are changes made to a workflow saved in the workflow editor?

A. Changes are auto saved.

B. Changes are saved when the workflow is closed.

C. Changes are saved when the workflow is published.

D. Changes are saved when the Apply option is selected in each task property.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

How can an action be made to appear under the More action?

A. By using the More option in the form state transition action

B. By adding multiple sub actions on the state transition action

C. By using the Secondary Action option in the state transition action

D. By using the More option in the business object state transition action

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which statement is true regarding a Query task?

A. It can only access queries created by the system user.

B. It can only access queries created by the user that created the workflow.

C. It can only access queries listed under the My Reports tab of the report manager.

D. It can only access queries listed under System Reports or the Community tab of the report manager.

Correct Answer: D


[PDF and VCE] Free E20-598 VCE and PDF, Exam Materials Instant Download

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your EMC Specialist Hotest E20-598 pdf dumps Backup and Recovery – Avamar Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators exam. We will assist you clear the Mar 29,2022 Latest E20-598 free download exam with EMC Specialist E20-598 dumps. We E20-598 pdf are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest E20-598 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the E20-598 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our E20-598 dumps.Free sample questions of E20-598 free dumps are provided here. All the following questions are from the latest real E20-598 dumps.

Question 1:

Which hash type represents an individual data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?

A. Atomic

B. Root

C. Composite

D. Metadata

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

For each file that is backed up in an EMC Avamar system, how many total bytes are added to the file cache?

A. 20

B. 24

C. 40

D. 44

Correct Answer: D

The most important thing to do on a client with so many files is to make sure that the file cache is sized appropriately. The file cache is responsible for the vast majority (>90%) of the performance of the vamar client. If there\’s a file cache miss,

the client has to go and thrash your disk for a while chunking up a file that may already be on the server.

So how to tune the file cache size?

The file cache starts at 22MB in size and doubles in size each time it grows. Each file on a client will use 44 bytes of space in the file cache (two SHA-1 hashes consuming 20 bytes each and 4 bytes of metadata). For 25 million files, the client

will generate just over 1GB of cache data.

http://jslabonte.blogspot.com/2013/08/avamar-and-large-dataset-with-multiples.html


Question 3:

What is used by EMC Avamar to provide system-wide fault tolerance?

A. RAID, RAIN, Checkpoints, and Replication

B. RAID, RAIN, Checkpoints, and HFS check

C. Asynchronous crunching, Parity, RAIN, and Checkpoints

D. HFS check, RAIN, RAID, and Replication

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

The EMC Avamar client needs to backup a file and has performed sticky-byte factoring. This results in the following:

Seven (7) chunks that will compress at 30%

Four (4) that will compress at 23%

Two (2) chunks at 50% compression

How many chunks will be compressed prior to hashing?

A. 4

B. 7

C. 9

D. 13

Correct Answer: C

vamar, has a rather nifty technology called Sticky Byte Factoring which allows it to identify the changed information inside a file by breaking the file into variable length objects, this leads to much greater efficiency than fixed size approaches as changes made early in a fixed length sequence affect all subsequent blocks/chunks/objects/whatever in that sequence. This in turn changes all the fingerprints taken following the changed data which means you end up with a lot of new blocks/chunks/objects/whatever even if the data really hasn\’t changed all that much. Sticky Byte Factoring on the other hand can tell what exactly has changed, not just that things have changed.


Question 5:

Which four account management actions can be performed from the EMC Client Manager interface?

A. Move clients to a new server Retire clients Move clients to a new domain View management log

B. Move clients to a new domain Retire clients Modify client group associations Schedule backups

C. View management log Modify replication Retire clients Move clients to a new server

D. View management log Retire clients Delete clients Browse clients

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which tool is used to move a client to a new domain in EMC Avamar 6.0?

A. Client Manager

B. Activation Manager

C. Enterprise Manager

D. Installation Manager

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

How many simultaneous client connections per node will an EMC Avamar server support?

A. 10

B. 15

C. 18

D. 25

Correct Answer: C

During the backup window, an Avamar server has 18 backup “slots” per node, minus one slot that is globally reserved for restore.


Question 8:

A storage node in a multi-node Avamar server has failed and a replacement node has been added to the grid. What is used to reconstruct the data on the new node?

A. RAIN

B. RAID

C. Checkpoint

D. Replication

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which port on the Avamar server does the client connect to when performing a backup with encryption enabled?

A. 27000

B. 28001

C. 28002

D. 29000

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which time zone is used on EMC Avamar nodes?

A. Local time on the utility node; GMT/UTC on the storage nodes

B. GMT/UTC on the utility node; local time on the storage nodes

C. All node types use the local time

D. All nodes use GMT/UTC time

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

In an EMC Avamar backup operation, which process always produces identical chunk results given the same data?

A. Sticky-byte factoring

B. Compression

C. File caching

D. Hashing

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

On an EMC Avamar server, what is the file extension of stripes that contain backup chunks?

A. *.dat

B. *.usd

C. *.chd

D. *.cdt

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

A customer is unable to connect to their EMC Avamar server when using the Avamar Administrator GUI. If default settings are being used, which port must be open for a successful connection?

A. 5555

B. 7778

C. 8443

D. 8080

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which interface is used to start Avamar Client Manager?

A. Enterprise Manager

B. Command Line

C. cron job

D. Avamar Administrator

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which size Avamar Gen4 storage node is supported for a RAIN configuration?

A. 1.0 TB

B. 1.3 TB

C. 2.6 TB

D. 3.9 TB

Correct Answer: D

For Gen4 3.9TB node: Raw capacity is 6 TB and licensed capacity is 3.9 TB For Gen4 7.8 TB node: Raw capacity is 12 TB and licensed capacity is 7.8 TB So, In a RAIN config with 1 utility node and 4 storage nodes (7.8 TB), the total capacity should be 48 TB and total licensed capacity is 31.2 TB


CISSP-2018 the Most Up to Date VCE And PDF Instant Download

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your ISC Certification Latest CISSP-2018 free download Certified Information Systems Security Professional 2018 exam. We will assist you clear the Mar 28,2022 Newest CISSP-2018 vce dumps exam with ISC Certification CISSP-2018 pdf. We CISSP-2018 dumps are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest CISSP-2018 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the CISSP-2018 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our CISSP-2018 dumps.Free sample questions of CISSP-2018 free dumps are provided here. All the following questions are from the latest real CISSP-2018 dumps.

Question 1:

Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

Order the below steps to create an effective vulnerability management process.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

Given the various means to protect physical and logical assets, match the access management area to the technology.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 4:

Match the objectives to the assessment questions in the governance domain of Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM).

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 5:

What is the correct order of steps in an information security assessment?

Place the information security assessment steps on the left next to the numbered boxes on the right in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 6:

Match the functional roles in an external audit to their responsibilities. Drag each role on the left to its corresponding responsibility on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 7:

Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification negotiates how security tokens will be issued, renewed and validated? Click on the correct specification in the image below.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 8:

Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification maintains a single authenticated identity across multiple dissimilar environments? Click on the correct specification in the image below.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 9:

Identify the component that MOST likely lacks digital accountability related to information access.

Click on the correct device in the image below.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 10:

In the network design below, where is the MOST secure Local Area Network (LAN) segment to deploy a Wireless Access Point (WAP) that provides contractors access to the Internet and authorized enterprise services?

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 11:

All of the following items should be included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) questionnaire EXCEPT questions that

A. determine the risk of a business interruption occurring

B. determine the technological dependence of the business processes

C. Identify the operational impacts of a business interruption

D. Identify the financial impacts of a business interruption

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=1andcad=rjaanduact=8andved=0ahUKEwjbktbTp- LaAhVIr48KHZuhB0UQFggmMAAandurl=http://www. oregon.gov/das/Procurement% 2FGuiddoc /BusImpAnalysQs.docandusg=AOvVaw1wBxcnLP8ceI_yhv2r sI9h


Question 12:

Which of the following actions will reduce risk to a laptop before traveling to a high risk area?

A. Examine the device for physical tampering

B. Implement more stringent baseline configurations

C. Purge or re-image the hard disk drive

D. Change access codes

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A company whose Information Technology (IT) services are being delivered from a Tier 4 data center, is preparing a companywide Business Continuity Planning (BCP). Which of the following failures should the IT manager be concerned with?

A. Application

B. Storage

C. Power

D. Network

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.colocationamerica.com/data-center/tier-standards-overview.htm


Question 14:

When assessing an organization\’s security policy according to standards established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 and 27002, when can management responsibilities be defined?

A. Only when assets are clearly defined

B. Only when standards are defined

C. Only when controls are put in place

D. Only procedures are defined

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which of the following types of technologies would be the MOST cost-effective method to provide a reactive control for protecting personnel in public areas?

A. Install mantraps at the building entrances

B. Enclose the personnel entry area with polycarbonate plastic

C. Supply a duress alarm for personnel exposed to the public

D. Hire a guard to protect the public area

Correct Answer: D


Free Share JN0-103 Exam Dumps and Practice Questions and Answers

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your Mar 24,2022 Hotest JN0-103 vce exam! Get yourself well prepared for the JNCIA Newest JN0-103 free download Junos – Associate (JNCIA-Junos) exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update JN0-103 dumps. With We latest JN0-103 new questions, you’ll pass the JNCIA Newest JN0-103 pdf dumps Junos – Associate (JNCIA-Junos) exam in an easy way

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest JN0-103 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the JN0-103 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our JN0-103 dumps.Although questions are from JN0-103 free dumps, the validity and accuracy of the JN0-103 dumps are absolutely guaranteed.

Question 1:

Which command verifies configuration syntax without applying the changes?

A. commit confirmed

B. commit check

C. commit comment

D. commit and-quit

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

By default, which character indicates the UNIX shell prompt?

A. #

B. %

C. $

D. >

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which two statements are true about static routes in the Junos OS? (Choose two.)

A. Static routes remain in the routing table until you remove them or until they become inactive.

B. Static routes must have a next hop defined.

C. Static routes are learned by neighboring devices and added to their routing tables.

D. Static routes are defined at the [edit routing-instances] hierarchy.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 4:

When multiple users are editing the configuration on a Junos device, what is the default behavior when a user issues a commit command?

A. All valid configuration changes made by all users will take effect.

B. The user\’s configuration changes are committed; other users\’ configuration changes are still pending.

C. The user will receive an error message disallowing a commit of the configuration.

D. The user\’s configuration changes are committed; other users will be exited from configuration mode.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Routing policies contain which two types of statements? (Choose two.)

A. then

B. from

C. default

D. and

Correct Answer: AB


Question 6:

You are connected to your Junos device using an SSH connection to the fxp0 interface. No other interfaces are currently configured beyond their default settings. You commit a configuration that makes the fxp0 interface unreachable from your management network.

In this scenario, how would you re-establish communication with the device?

A. Connect to the console of the device.

B. Establish an SSH connection to the loopback interface.

C. Power off and power on the device.

D. Unplug the network cable and plug it back in.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Referring to the exhibit, which command will cause this event message?

A. request system halt B. request system logout

C. request system recover

D. request system commit

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What are two benefits realized by the disaggregated Junos OS? (Choose two.)

A. There is increased flexibility to use different control plane versions.

B. The Junos VM becomes hardware-independent and can be deployed on any hypervisor without modification.

C. The architecture facilitates programmability through provisioning the control plane, the data path, and the platform APIs.

D. The platform drivers and forwarding engine are removed from the control plane to increase performance.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 9:

Which parameter of the monitor traffic command should be used with caution when considering storage space on a Junos device?

A. write-file

B. layer2-headers

C. extensive D. detail

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which two commands would you use to reset the candidate configuration to the active configuration? (Choose two.)

A. rollback 0

B. rollback 2

C. rollback 1

D. rollback

Correct Answer: AD


Question 11:

Which two statements are true regarding dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

A. Participating devices dynamically learn routing information from each other.

B. Dynamic routing requires more administrative overhead than static routing.

C. Dynamic routing allows a device to automatically reroute traffic around a failure.

D. Dynamic routing is used when absolute control of routing parameters is necessary.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 12:

Referring to the exhibit, what happens to a packet that has a destination address of 172.17.0.1?

A. The packet is forwarded to the next hop of the management network.

B. The packet is rejected and an ICMP network unreachable message is sent to the source address.

C. The packet is silently discarded.

D. The packet is forwarded to the next hop defined in the default route.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

You notice that the terms in your firewall filter are not in the correct order.

What would solve this problem?

A. Use the next term action to force an evaluation of the next term.

B. Use the insert command to reorder the terms within the filter.

C. Use the count parameter to ensure that the terms are evaluated correctly.

D. Use the reject action to change the action of the filter.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which command will show files stored in the /var/home/lab directory?

A. [email protected]> file show

B. [email protected]> file list

C. [edit] [email protected]# rollback ?

D. [email protected]> ls

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which two statements are true about the default behavior of Junos routing policies? (Choose two.)

A. Routing policies control the flow of routing information going to and from the forwarding table.

B. Routing policies control the flow of routing information going to and from the routing table.

C. Routing policies can export active and inactive routes.

D. Routing policies can export only active routes.

Correct Answer: AD


Free Download the Most Update OG0-093 Brain Dumps

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your The Open Group Certification Hotest OG0-093 pdf dumps TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2 exam. We will assist you clear the Mar 23,2022 Latest OG0-093 practice exam with The Open Group Certification OG0-093 dumps. We OG0-093 new questions are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest OG0-093 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the OG0-093 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our OG0-093 dumps.These questions are from OG0-093 free dumps. All questions in OG0-093 dumps are from the latest OG0-093 real exams.

Question 1:

Which one of the following is NOT part of the approach to Phase H -Architecture Change Management?

A. Business Scenarios

B. Capacity Measurement

C. Change Management

D. Measuring Business Growth

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

When determining the requirements for enterprise architecture work in the Preliminary Phase, which of the following is not a business imperative that should be considered?

A. Business requirements

B. Cultural aspirations

C. Forecast financial requirements

D. Strategic Intent

E. Technical elegance

Correct Answer: E


Question 3:

Which of the following statements best describes risk management in the ADM?

A. Risk analysis is best conducted in the Architecture Vision phase so that the risk is eliminated in subsequent phases

B. Risk analysis should be carried out first in the Migration Planning phase

C. Risk analysis is outside the scope of enterprise architecture projects

D. Risk is pervasive in all enterprise architecture activity and should be managed in all phases of the ADM

E. The only risks that are within the scope of enterprise architecture are technological risks

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which of the following best describes capability based planning?

A. A business planning technique that focuses on business outcomes

B. A business planning technique that focuses on horizontal capabilities

C. A business planning technique that focuses on vertical capabilities

D. A human resource planning technique that focuses on capable architects

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of the following is a technique recommended by TOGAF to help identify and understand requirements?

A. Architecture Maturity Models

B. Business Scenarios

C. Gap Analysis

D. Mind Maps

E. SWOT Analysis

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

The statement, “Getting information to the right people at the right time in a secure, reliable man-ner in order to support the operations that are core to the extended enterprise” describes the concept of_____

A. Boundaryless Information Flow

B. Interoperability

C. Portability

D. Service Oriented Architecture

E. Semantic Web

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Gap Analysis is a technique used in Phases B, C, D and E. Which one of the following statements best describes the gap analysis technique?

A. It highlights areas of stakeholder concern

B. It highlights the impacts of change

C. It highlights services that are yet to be developed

D. It highlights services that are available

E. It highlights different viewpoints

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which one of the following describes the practice by which the enterprise architecture is managed and controlled at an enterprise-wide level?

A. Architecture governance

B. Corporate governance

C. IT governance

D. Technology governance

E. Portfolio management

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which one of the following does TOGAF Part VII recommend in order to implement an Enter-prise Architecture Capability?

A. Develop an Architecture Roadmap

B. Populate the Architecture Repository

C. Populate the Enterprise Continuum

D. Use the Architecture Development Method E. Use the Implementation Governance Phase

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which one of the following describes a purpose of an Architecture Compliance review?

A. To define the capabilities of the organization

B. To communicate the technical readiness of the project

C. To evaluate the readiness of the organization to undergo change

D. To produce a new Request for Architecture Work

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Complete the sentence. In TOGAF, every architecture view has an associated ____ that describes it, at least implicitly.

A. architecture building block

B. architecture model

C. architecture vision

D. requirement

E. viewpoint

Correct Answer: E


Question 12:

Complete the sentence. In TOGAF, legacy systems and processes that are going to be used again in the future are considered ______

A. Architecture Building Blocks

B. Components

C. Patterns

D. Re-usable Building Blocks

E. Solution Building Blocks

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?

A. Part I describes the TOGAF approach to Enterprise Architecture

B. Part II describes the definitions of terms used and the changes between versions of TOGAF

C. Part III describes requirements management and is considered to be the core of TOGAF

D. Part IV describes the ADM: a collection of guidelines and techniques used in TOGAF 9

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?

A. An artifact contains one or more deliverables

B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them

C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect

D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project

E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not

Correct Answer: E


Question 15:

According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, which category describes a technique that is referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated?

A. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques

B. TOGAF Recommended

C. TOGAF Supporting

D. TOGAF Extension

Correct Answer: B


[Newest Version] Free OG0-091 PDF and Exam Questions Download 100% Pass Exam

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your The Open Group Certification Hotest OG0-091 study guide TOGAF 9 Part 1 exam. We will assist you clear the Mar 23,2022 Newest OG0-091 QAs exam with The Open Group Certification OG0-091 pdf. We OG0-091 exam questions are the most comprehensive ones.

We Geekcert has our own expert team. They selected and published the latest OG0-091 preparation materials from Official Exam-Center.

The following are the OG0-091 free dumps. Go through and check the validity and accuracy of our OG0-091 dumps.Free sample questions of OG0-091 free dumps are provided here. All the following questions are from the latest real OG0-091 dumps.

Question 1:

According to TOGAF, which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?

A. Application, Business, Data, Technology

B. Capability, Segment, Strategic

C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation

D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?

A. Part I describes the TOGAF approach to Enterprise Architecture

B. Part II describes the definitions of terms used and the changes between versions of TOGAF

C. Part III describes requirements management and is considered to be the core of TOGAF

D. Part IV describes the ADM: a collection of guidelines and techniques used in TOGAF 9

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

According to TOGAF, which one of the following best describes an enterprise architecture?

A. An architecture of a commercial organization

B. An architecture that consists of more than one subsidiary company

C. An architecture that crosses multiple systems, and multiple functional groups within the enterprise

D. The highest level of architecture that can be achieved in a given organization

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?

A. An artifact contains one or more deliverables

B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them

C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect

D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project

E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not

Correct Answer: E


Question 5:

Which one of the following lists the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?

A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference Library, Compliance Strategy

B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Model

C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log

D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which of the following reasons best describes why the ADM numbering scheme for versioning output is an example and not mandatory?

A. To show the evolution of deliverables

B. To permit adaptation as required

C. To enable use with the Architecture Content Framework

D. To support change management

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which of the following is the architecture domain that describes the logical software and hardware capabilities?

A. Application Architecture

B. Business Architecture

C. Data Architecture

D. Technology Architecture

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which one of the following is NOT an element of an architecture framework?

A. A common vocabulary

B. A list of recommended standards

C. A method for designing an information system in terms of building blocks

D. A set of structuresWhich can be used to develop a broad range of architectures

E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering

Correct Answer: E


Question 9:

Complete the sentence. To promote effective architectural activity within the enterprise, TOGAF 9 recommends the establishment of a(n) _____

A. Enterprise Architecture Capability

B. IT Governing Board

C. Program Management Office

D. Quality Assurance department

E. Service Management department

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

An association of companies has defined a data model for sharing inventory and pricing information.

Which of the following best describes where this model would fit in the Architecture Continuum?

A. Foundation Architecture

B. Common Systems Architecture

C. Industry Architecture

D. Organization Specific Architecture

E. Product Line Architecture

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which one of the following is a key objective of Phase A of the TOGAF ADM?

A. To create a roadmap that describes the evolution of the architecture over time

B. To prepare a Solution Architecture for the enterprise

C. To define an IT Strategy that maps out the technology infrastructure

D. To allocate the resources needed to implement the architecture project

E. To articulate an Architecture Vision

Correct Answer: E


Question 12:

According to TOGAF, Which of the following is the usual approach for developing the Baseline Business Architecture if no architecture or few architecture assets exist?

A. Bottom up

B. Envisioning

C. Extensive

D. Refactoring

E. Top down

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which phase of the ADM focuses on the governance and management of the Architecture Contracts that cover the overall implementation and deployment process?

A. Requirements Management

B. Phase E

C. Phase F

D. Phase G

E. Phase H

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Complete the sentence. A server consolidation project that does not change the operating characteristics of the applications would require _____.

A. a complete ADM cycle

B. a complete re-architecting change

C. a full revision of the enterprise architecture

D. an incremental change

E. a simplification change

Correct Answer: E


Question 15:

The Requirements Management Phase is responsible for which one of the following activities?

A. Addressing requirements

B. Disposal of resolved requirements

C. Generating requirements

D. Managing the flow of requirements

E. Prioritizing requirements

Correct Answer: D