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Question 1:

Which port needs to be opened for Alert Channel communication between Sensor and Manager through a firewall?

A. 8501

B. 8502

C. 8503

D. 8555

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

DoS detection is implemented in which of the following modes? (Choose two)

A. Learning mode

B. Configuration mode

C. Threshold mode

D. Bidirectional mode

E. Inbound mode

Correct Answer: AC


Question 3:

In double VLAN tagging, a second VLAN tag that is inserted into the frame is referred to as which of the following?

A. Customer Identification tag (CD)

B. VLAN Identification tag (VID)

C. Outer Identification tag (OID)

D. Inner Identification tag (HD)

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which attack cannot be blocked when the sensor has been set for in-line mode?

A. TCP Control Anomaly

B. ICMP Echo Anomaly

C. Too Many Inbound Syn

D. SCADA Attacks

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which CLI command is used to copy sensor SSL certificates from external flash when replacing a failed sensor?

A. Exportsensorcerts

B. Importsensorcerts

C. Exportcerts

D. Importcerts

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Reconnaissance Policies can be applied to which of the following sensor nodes?

A. Sensor name node only

B. Sensor interface node only

C. Sensor sub-interface node only

D. Sensor name, interface and sub-interface node

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

When the buffer on the alert cache has been filled, what happens to current incoming alerts?

A. Incoming alerts are added to the cache and the oldest alerts are dropped

B. Incoming alerts are not added to the cache and are dropped

C. Incoming alerts are held in queue until cache space is cleared

D. Incoming alerts are added to the database directly

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What type of encryption is used for packet log transfers between the Sensor and the Manager?

A. SSL with RC4

B. SSL with MD5

C. SSL with RC4 and MD5

D. DES

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

When creating policies, which of the following rule sets are available for selection within those policies?

A. Only rule sets created using the Rule Set Editor

B. Only rule sets imported from the Sensor

C. Only rule sets created using the Rule Set Editor and Default rule sets

D. Only Default Rule sets

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which sensor action detects and drop attacks in real-time?

A. Drop further packets

B. Host Quarantine action

C. TCP reset

D. ICMP host unreachable

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which of the following actions can a Standby Manager of an MDR pair perform?

A. Modify sensor configuration

B. Policy configuration

C. Signature update

D. Configuration backup

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which port needs to be opened for Alert Viewer communication between Client and Manager through a firewall?

A. 8501

B. 8502

C. 8503

D. 8555

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Why is the DBAdmin tool considered a preferred method of performing system maintenance tasks that could be performed within the Manager?

A. Saves additional workload on the Manager

B. Reliability

C. Speed

D. Ease of use

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

What is the command to enable the sensor to forward all traffic at Layer 2 if a failure occurs?

A. Layer2 mode off

B. Layer2modeon

C. Layer2 mode assert

D. Layer2 mode deassert

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

A sensor is placed in-line and is dropping traffic. This situation demands an immediate removal of the sensor from the network to let traffic flow uninterrupted. Which option will you use to verify whether the issue is due to sensor configuration or network congestion?

A. Layer2modeon

B. Layer2 mode assert

C. Layer2 mode deassert

D. Layer2 mode off

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Match each port number with its appropriate protocol name.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

Which of the following is the height of 1U of space in a server rack?

A. 1.5 inches (3.8 cm)

B. 1.75 inches (4.4 cm)

C. 2 inches (5.1 cm)

D. 3 inches (7.6 cm)

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

A blade server chassis has two power supplies. Which of the following is a benefit of a technician connecting each power supply to a separate UPS unit?

A. Quality of service

B. Fault tolerance

C. Traffic shaping

D. Load balancing

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

A blade chassis can hold 16 half-height blades or eight full-height blades. Which of the following is the MAXIMUM number of half-height blades that can be installed in the chassis if six full-height blades are already installed?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A technician is asked to install an additional NIC in a server. Which of the following hardware considerations would be BEST for the technician to make?

A. Power consumption

B. Bus type and speed

C. CPU stepping

D. CAS latency

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

A server technician is replacing a web server in an organization. The new server has two integrated NICs. Which of the following describes how the NICs should be configured for fault protection?

A. The NICs should be configured separately with one MAC address.

B. The NICs should be placed into a team with one MAC address.

C. The NICs should be configured separately with two MAC addresses.

D. The NICs should be placed into a team with two MAC addresses.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A server administrator is implementing disk redundancy in all database servers. Which of the following RAID configurations should the administrator use so that a MINIMUM number of disks are required?

A. RAID 0

B. RAID 1

C. RAID 5

D. RAID 6

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

A certain rack mounted blade server chassis needs 3-phase power for operation. There is currently only single-phase power coming into the room. The administrator needs to:

A. call an electrician to wire the single-phase power into 3-phase power.

B. use a single-phase UPS to power the 3-phase server.

C. call an electrician to see if 3-phase power can be brought into the room.

D. use an adapter to configure the server to use single-phase power.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which of the following is the MOST redundant power solution?

A. Two power supplies, each hooked up to individual legs of one 3-phase circuit.

B. Two power supplies, each hooked up to the same 1-phase circuit.

C. Two power supplies, each hooked up to separate 1-phase circuits.

D. One power supply hooked up to two 1-phase circuits.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

An administrator is tasked with deploying a server in a telephone switching station. Which of the following voltages will MOST likely be available at the facility?

A. -48VDC

B. 120VDC

C. 220VAC

D. 440VAC

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A system administrator needs to install an operating system onto a new server in a remote location using PXE. Which of the following methods will BEST accomplish this?

A. SSH

B. RDP

C. TFTP

D. HTTP

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

A technician is installing an operating system on a server using source files on a USB storage device. The technician is unable to boot to the USB device using different USB ports on the server. Which of the following should the technician do to ensure that the operating system can be installed from the USB storage?

A. Copy the source files to a CD

B. Install the latest USB device drivers

C. Reconfigure the boot order

D. Update the BIOS firmware

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

The IT director instructed the systems administrator to build a server to support the accounting department\’s file growth. The IT director requested that the accounting users have the ability to encrypt their files; however, the accounting users have reported the inability to encrypt their files. Which of the following file system types is MOST likely causing this issue?

A. QFS

B. ZFS

C. FAT32

D. CIFS

E. ext4

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which of the following server types translates FQDNs to IP addresses?

A. DHCP

B. SMTP

C. DNS

D. FTP

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Two servers are to be configured for high availability in a cluster. Both servers will be running applications at the same time. This feature is know as:

A. round robin.

B. heartbeat.

C. active/active.

D. active/passive.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Examine the parameters shown using the sysctl command relating to panic situations: [[email protected] etc]# sysctl 璦 |grep panic |grep -v hung kernel.panic = 0 kernel.panic_on_oops = 0 kernel.softlockup_panic = 0 kernel.unknown_nmi_panic = 0 kernel.panic_on_unrecovered_nmi = 0 kernel.panic_on_io_nmi = 0 kernel.panic_on_oom = 2 [[email protected] etc]# sysctl 璦 |grep hung

kernel.hung_task_panic = 0 kernel.hung_task_chek_count ?4194304 kernel.hung_task_timeout_secs = 120 kernel.hung_task_warnings = 10

Which two statements are true about system behavior?

A. The kernel delays panic for a few seconds if a bug is encountered to allow the klogd kernel logging daemon to log the oops output.

B. The kernel panics if a kernel thread sleeps in the TASK_UNINTERRUPTABLE state for more than 120 seconds.

C. The kernel attempts to continue if a bug is encountered.

D. The kernel always panics if an out-of-memory condition arises.

E. The kernel tries to kill some memory-consuming processes to avoid a panic if an out-of- memory condition arises.

F. The kernel panics if a user thread sleeps in the TASK_UNINTERRUPTABLE state for more than 120 seconds.

Correct Answer: BF


Question 2:

After creating empty mount point /xfs1, you execute the command:

# mkfs –t xfs –L /xfs1 –l logdev=/dev/sdd1 /dev/sdh1

Which two statements are true about the effects of executing the mkfs command?

A. It fails if there is an existing XFS file system on /dev/sdh1.

B. It fails if there is an existing XFS log on /dev/sdd1.

C. It fails if there is an existing XFS file system on /dev/sdd1.

D. It fails because there is no size specified for the XFS log.

E. The xfs1 file system is mounted automatically during system startup.

F. It creates and mounts the /xfs1 file system.

Correct Answer: DF


Question 3:

Which two statements are true about recursive nameservers that are supported by Oracle Linux?

A. They may be authoritative.

B. They may forward requests to authoritative name servers on some occasions.

C. They may be primary nameservers.

D. They cache replies from previous name resolution requests.

E. They may be secondary nameservers.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

While copying a file to the /users file system, which is located on /dev/sdd1, you receive an error:

$ cp /etc/oratab /users/oracle cp: cannot create regular file `/users/oracle/oratab\’: Disk quota exceeded You examine your assigned quota as shown: $ quota -q Disk quotas for user oracle (uid 500):

Which option represents the reason for receiving the Disk quota exceeded error?

A. The oracle user has reached its block quota.

B. The oracle user exceeded its file quota five days ago.

C. The oracle user has reached a group quota limit.

D. The /users file system is full.

E. The oracle user exceeded its block quota six days ago.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

For which domain or domains does the default cache-only nameserver have a list of authoritative servers in the /var/named/named. ca file?

A. the domain to which the cache only nameserver belongs

B. the root domain

C. the domains to which the local DHCP servers belong

D. the domains to which the local DNS servers belong

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Examine the udevadm command:

udevadm info –query=all –name=/dev/sdb

What does this command display?

A. the device tree, and all properties maintained in sysfs for all parent devices in the device tree for the /dev/sdb disk device

B. all properties maintained in sysfs for the /dev/sdb kernel device, excluding parent devices

C. all properties maintained in devfs for the /dev/sdb kernel device, excluding parent devices

D. the device tree, and all properties maintained in devfs for the /dev/sdb device, including properties of all parent devices in the device tree for the /dev/sdb disk device

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which two parameters are valid networking modes for a Linux container (LXC)?

A. veth

B. bridged

C. nat

D. macvlan

E. routed

Correct Answer: BC


Question 8:

Which three statements are true about support for the XFS file system in Oracle Linux?

A. It is a journaling, extend-based file system.

B. It is not supported for the /boot file system.

C. It is supported for the root (/) file system.

D. It supports user and group disk quotas.

E. It is supported only when created on Logical Volumes.

F. It has a built-in volume manager.

Correct Answer: BDF

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37670_01/E37355/html/ol_about_xfs.html


Question 9:

Identify the two commands that can be used to set SELinux file labels back to their default values.

A. chcon

B. fixfiles

C. semanage fcontext

D. restorecon

E. matchpathcon

F. opdate_selinux

Correct Answer: AD


Question 10:

Which statement describes the default network set up by an Oracle template script?

A. The container is isolated from the network.

B. A veth device is added to libvirt\’s virbr0 bridge.

C. A macvlan device enables DHCP from the host\’s network.

D. A private interface is routed to Open vSwitch.

Correct Answer: B

By default, the lxc-oracle template script sets up networking by setting up a veth bridge. In this mode, a container obtains its IP address from the dnsmasq server that libvirtd runs on the private virtual bridge network (virbr0) between the container and the host. The host allows a container to connect to the rest of the network by using NAT rules in iptables, but these rules do not allow incoming connections to the container. Both the host and other containers on the veth bridge have network access to the container via the bridge.


Question 11:

Consider a cgroup configuration in the /etc/cgconfig.conf file:

mount {

cpuset = /cgroup/A;

cpu = /cgroup/A;

cpuacct = /cgroup/cpuacct;

}

group A1 {

perm {

admin {

uid = root;

gid = wheel;

}

task {

uid = root;

gid = users;

}

}

cpuset {

cpuset.mems=”0″;

cpuset.cpus=”0″;

}

cpu {

cpu.shares=”5″;

}

}

group A2 {

perm {

admin {

uid = root;

admin {

uid = root

gid = root;

}

task {

uid = root;

gid = users;

}

}

cpuset {

cpuset.mems=”0″;

cpuset.cpus=”1″;

}

cpu {

cpu.shares=”5″;

}

}

Which two statements are true?

A. Two cgroup hierarchies and three subsystems are defined; cgroup A1 and A2 are located in the same sgroup hierarchy.

B. Two cgroup hierarchies and three subsystems are defined; cgroup A1 and A2 are located in different cgroup hierarchiers.

C. Three cgroup hierarchies and three subsystems are defined; cgroup A1 and A2 are located in the same sgroup hierarchy.

D. Three cgroup hierarchies and three subsystems are defined; cgroup A1 and A2 are located in different cgroup hierarchiers.

E. Any user who is a member of the users group is allowed to move his or her own tasks from the root cgroup to cgroup A1 or cgroup A2.

F. Any user who is a member of the users group is allowed to execute tasks in cgroups A1 and A2 and change the cpu.shares parameter in cgroups A1 and A2.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 12:

What statement is true about udev?

A. It uses predefined kernel devices in /dev for all combinations of that may be connected to a system to support dynamic device name assignment.

B. It dynamically creates kernel devices for only those devices that are connected.

C. It produces persistent device names for all devices.

D. Its configuration is based on device properties and attributes maintained in devfs.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://www.linuxfromscratch.org/lfs/view/development/chapter07/udev.html


Question 13:

Which three statements are true about an OpenLDAP server?

A. /etc/openldap.conf is the main configuration file for the LDAP server.

B. LDAP entries are stored in a flat namespace.

C. It can be used to store users and groups.

D. In can be used to store hostnames and their IP addresses.

E. It can replicate entries synchronously to another OpenLDAP server.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 14:

Identify the minimum required steps to configure an NIS master.

1.

Ensure that the yptools, ypbind, and ypserv RPMs are installed.

2.

Configure and set the NIS domain name.

3.

Start the ypserv service.

4.

Start the ypxfrd service.

5.

Start the yppasswdd service

6.

Run ypinit -m

7.

Start the ypbind service

A. 1, 2, 3, 6

B. 1, 2 , 3, 6, 7

C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7

E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://pashasysadm.wordpress.com/2014/06/16/nis-master-client-server-configuration-setup/


Question 15:

Which three types of output may be obtained from commands from the crash utility in Oracle Linux?

A. kernel data structures

B. information about all open and closed files

C. kernel symbol names

D. information about all mounted and unmounted file systems

E. a list of tasks on the sleep queue

F. a list of tasks on the stopped queue

Correct Answer: ABC


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Question 1:

A network team has decided to utilize NSX to enable microsegmentation in its environment. Several networks have been created to support a three-tiered application network. An architect has been asked to incorporate this into the vRealize

Automation environment and consume these networks on demand.

What are two things the architect needs to take into consideration in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. usable Subnet Mask in the network profiles

B. routed network profiles assigned to virtual machine port groups in the reservation

C. external network profile for each application tier

D. routed network profile for each application tier

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/products/nsx/vmwareautomation-fundamentals-book.pdf


Question 2:

A company has a main office, three regional offices, and six branches offices. The network links are configured as shown in the exhibit. View the Exhibit:

During information gathering, an architect records: The regional offices are located in secure bunkers. The CTO feels this would be a good location for all the vRealize Automation components to meet their BC/DR objectives. However, the CTO is looking for the best design while maintaining their very high security requirements. The branch offices are located in very remote locations with unpredictable network performance. Reliance on the main and regional offices needs to be minimal while still allowing provisioning of machines in the branch offices. The branch offices consist of three host vSphere clusters. There is synchronous vSphere Metro Storage Cluster (vMSC) between the regional offices as well as replicated backups between the regional offices with replication running nightly. The CEO wants to have the lowest possible RPO and RTO of the vRealize portal including the ability to manage already provisioned machines while NOT increasing the amount of data being replicated between the regional offices as much as possible. Referring to the exhibit, which two design specifications can the architect recommend to meet requirements? (Choose two.)

A. distributed vRealize Automation management solution in the main office

B. vSphere agents in each of the branch offices

C. distributed vRealize Automation management solution in each of the regional offices

D. distributed vRealize Automation management solution across the regional offices

E. vSphere agents in the regional offices that manage the regional and branch offices

Correct Answer: DE


Question 3:

Which two-factor authentication mechanism is supported by vRealize Automation?

A. Mobile SSO (Secure Sign-On) authentication

B. AirWatch Cloud Connector authentication

C. Certificate-based authentication

D. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) authentication

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

During requirements gathering for an organization\’s private cloud on a single machine catalog, the following requirements were identified:

A user should be able to select a data center location which is mapped to a custom resource by the fabric administrator.

A Guest VM custom hostname format should be based on the first two letters of the data center location.

A generated VM custom hostname format should be displayed as a drop-down in the catalog request pageusing a vRealize Automation (vRA) custom property backed by external vRealize Orchestrator (vRO) action.

Which design recommendation would best address these requirements?

A. Define a custom property “_vrm.DataCenter.Location” with static datacenter values, assign it to the blueprint with the “Show in the request” check box selected and map it as an input to the required vRO action.

B. Define a custom property “Vrm.DataCenter.Location” with static datacenter values, assign it to the blueprint with the “Show in the request” check box selected and map it as an input to the required vRO action.

C. Enable “Display location on request” in the blueprint\’s VM machine type, map the built-in “Vrm.DataCenter.Location” custom property as an input to the required vRO action.

D. No new custom property is required since the fabric administrator has already mapped datacenter locations to the correct compute resources. Map the built-in “_vrm.DataCenter.Location” custom property as an input to the required vRO action.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/7.5/com.vmware.vrA.prepare.use.doc/GUIDFA2ED665-4973-435C-A93B-8E4EAB5D1F8A.html


Question 5:

A cloud architect is trying to determine the operational impacts of adding another business group (DevOps) to the company\’s existing vRealize Automation (vRA) deployment. Existing users have reported that response times for login into their

vRA infrastructure has spiked recently and it is taking longer than usual. The Active Directory user base, after the addition of DevOps users, could increase to well over 100,000 users and 50 groups.

What is the VMware-recommended design to address this scenario?

A. Add an additional connector to the existing Active Directory.

B. Add an additional IaaS proxy agent.

C. Add an additional IaaS DEM server.

D. Change the default access policy when adding the additional user base.

E. Increase the vRA virtual appliance memory allocation on each machine as per sizing guidelines.

Correct Answer: E


Question 6:

A cloud architect is tasked with designing a Guest virtual machine (VM) request form for an organization\’s new vRealize Automation (vRA) implementation. Its current PowerCLI VM request tool uses a PowerShell script that retrieves user IDs

from Active Directory, which is the same identity source for vRealize Automation. The intent of the script is to retrieve and display John Smith when the actual value in Active Directory is JSmith01.

What is the most secure way to utilize the same script for user\’s display name in the vRA request form?

A. Design a schedule vRealize Orchestrator workflow to execute the PowerShell Script and update the vRealize Automation drop-down custom property with static values.

B. Design a schedule vRealize Orchestrator (vRO) workflow to execute the PowerShell Script and store values in vRO, then utilize the vRA external drop-down to retrieve these values from vRO.

C. Design a display custom property in the vRA `Administration/Active Directory Policy\’ that maps to the correct organizational unit.

D. Create a drop-down custom property with external values that returns a display name using the existing PowerShell script.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

A cloud architect is tasked with providing a design for integration with a third-party system.

The following requirements have been identified:

When a user requests a virtual machine, vRealize Automation should pass the user selected application name with its key to the third-party system.

The application list could be updated weekly following the architecture approval meeting. It currently has 250 items.

Impacts to the vRealize Automation virtual machine request screen\’s performance should be minimized.

What would be the best solution to meet these requirements?

A. Create a vRO action to return application values as “Array\String” by reading from the third-party system dynamically, Create a display drop-down custom property with external values and map it to the vRO action.

B. Design a schedule vRealize Orchestrator (vRO) workflow to read values from the third-party system and store in vRO, Create a vRO action to return application values stored in vRO as “Properties”, Create a Display drop-down custom property with external values and map it to the vRO action.

C. Create a Display drop-down custom property with external values and provide AJAX call information to the third-party system.

D. Design a schedule vRO workflow to read values from the third-party and store in vRO, Create a vRO action to return application values stored in vRO as “Array\String”, Create a Display drop-down custom property with external values and map it to the vRO action.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

An IaaS Administrator has been tasked with organizing virtualization compute resources and cloud endpoints into fabric groups by type and intent. One or more fabric administrators will manage the resources in each fabric group. Which are three considerations to take into account when designing the fabric groups? (Choose three.)

A. Fabric administrators are responsible for creating reservations on the compute resources in their fabric groups to allocate fabric to specific business groups.

B. Fabric administrators monitor the resource use for their group(s) and often are approvers for catalog requests.

C. Fabric administrators may submit requests on behalf of other users. These users could be a member of more than one group and have different roles in different groups.

D. The IaaS administrator must grant the role of fabric administrator to the appropriate users.

E. Fabric groups will be created in a specific tenant, but their resources could be made available to users who belong to business groups in all tenants.

Correct Answer: ADE

Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vCAC-61/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vcac.concepts.doc/GUID-CC81881E-8DE0-4A09-ABC2-2B34240E5686.html


Question 9:

Development team members would like to deploy multiple software packages within a blueprint. One of these software packages, Tax Processing 1.0, has licensing requirements. Any member of the finance team can authorize the installation

per request, but the entire team must be notified.

Which approval policies would satisfy this request?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which three statements are true regarding a multitenant deployment where each tenant managed its own infrastructure in vRealize Automation? (Choose three.)

A. Each tenant has an IaaS administrator who could create fabric groups and appoint fabric administrators with their respective tenants.

B. Fabric administrators CANNOT create reservations for business groups in other tenants.

C. Each tenant must provide its own infrastructure resources and CANNOT share a common infrastructure.

D. The system administrator is the only user who logs in to the default tenant to manage system-wide configurations and create tenants.

E. Fabric administrators manage reservations only for the users in their own tenant.

Correct Answer: ADE

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/7.4/com.vmware.vrA.prepare.use.doc/GUID-12E7F3C7-744E-43E3-B6B6-ACDC28B70261.html


Question 11:

An architect has been tasked with designing a vRealize Automation blueprint that includes Linux machines.

The design includes a requirement that all newly-created machines be added to the corporate DNS. Which two design specifications will address the needs of this scenario?

A. Use custom properties on each machine within the blueprint that provides the details for adding the machine to the corporate DNS.

B. Create an Event Broker subscription that runs an appropriate vRealize Orchestrator workflow during an appropriate machine lifecycle state.

C. Add and configure the appropriate XaaS component into the machine blueprint.

D. Create an XaaS blueprint that adds the machine to DNS and then builds the machine.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 12:

An architect has been tasked with designing a blueprint containing web, application and database machines utilizing NSX for networking. Upon provisioning, network traffic must be automatically restricted to allow:

1.

The web server to communicate only to the application server

2.

The application server to communicate to both the web and database servers

3.

The database server to be blocked from communicating to the other servers

Which two methods could the architect use to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. Assign an appropriate security group to the entitled items or entitled service within the entitlement.

B. Add an appropriate security group to the blueprint from within the blueprint properties, under NSX Settings.

C. Create or update an appropriate security group within NSX to include the provisioned machines.

D. Specify an appropriate security group in the blueprint and assign it to each machine.

E. Use an Event Broker subscription to ensure that provisioned machines are receiving the appropriate security group assignment.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 13:

IT Services would like to automate the allocation of software applications. The company uses a modern virtual desktop platform with software management capabilities, and the platform supports interoperability via a REST API. The following requirements have been established for this project:

1.

Business users will use a self-service portal to request software added to their existing system.

2.

The requestor may select one or more software applications from a list during the request.

3.

The software application list must be up-to-date.

4.

The virtual desktop team will provide REST API calls needed to interface with the existing platform.

Which three of these listed elements are required for this scenario? (Choose three.)

A. Customization of XaaS form

B. vRealize Orchestrator workflow with script action

C. Resource mapping

D. Resource action

E. External value definition

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 14:

An architect is tasked with designing a multi-region Software Defined Data Center (SDDC) deployment. The operations team has mandated that the solution enable real-time logging for all automation components. The architect makes a design decision to use a vRealize Log Insight cluster in each region, consisting of a total of three nodes. Which three data sources are required to be in scope? (Choose three.)

A. vRealize Automation Appliance

B. NSX Manager, NSX Controller instances and NSX Edge instances

C. vRealize Operations Manager

D. vRealize Orchestrator

E. vRealize IaaS Server

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 15:

A company has deployed vRealize Automation into its production environment and now wants to integrate it with different components of its infrastructure through the REST API. What are three services provided by the REST API? (Choose three.)

A. Blueprint Service

B. Forms Service

C. Monitoring Service

D. Portal Service

E. Approval Service

Correct Answer: CDE

Reference:

https://docs.vmware.com/cn/vRealize-Automation/7.2/com.vmware.vrA.programming.doc/GUIDFBF2B82A- F5F3-43DC-A2FA-66BCF3C79EC3.html


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Question 1:

What refers to an agreement between provider and consumer that states the terms of service usage?

A. Service contract

B. Service template

C. Chargeback

D. Showback

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

What is an advantage of adopting a microservices strategy in an application development environment?

A. All microservices of an application are always updated at the same time for maintaining consistency in the application

B. Every microservice can be deployed, upgraded, scaled, and restarted independent of other services in the application

C. Microservices are tightly coupled so it is easy to scale all the services at once to meet business demands

D. Microservices provide the application platform to implement DevOps in the organization easily and at low cost

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which role in service portfolio management determines and delivers the services that provide value and strategic advantage to the provider?

A. Cloud Service Account Manager

B. Cloud Automation Engineer

C. Cloud Administrator

D. Cloud Auditor

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which management process ensures business continuity by eliminating single points of failure in a data center?

A. Availability management

B. Security management

C. Capacity management

D. Performance management

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which phase of the cloud service lifecycle involves making business use case decisions for the cloud service offering portfolio?

A. Service Termination

B. Service Planning

C. Service Creation

D. Service Operation

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

The incident management team is unable to determine the root cause of an incident. To which team should the error-correction activity be transferred?

A. Performance Management

B. Change Management

C. Availability Management

D. Problem Management

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

What mechanism does RSA SecurID use?

A. Single sign-on authentication

B. Policy-based authorization

C. Multi-factor authentication

D. Role-based authorization

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

What capability does an orchestration workflow provide?

A. Helps administer the cloud infrastructure, such as adding resources to a resource pool, billing, and reporting

B. Helps to consolidate all the IT resources in the cloud environment

C. Enables the administrator to control the underlying physical infrastructure using a single unified management console

D. Creates an automated set of tasks to update the service catalog by cloud consumers without requiring manual intervention

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

What can an IT department do to better meet IT challenges and support digital businesses?

A. Become more technology centric

B. Focus on delivery and management of digital assets

C. Become more service centric within cost constraints

D. Focus on providing services without being distracted by costs

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

What is a key benefit of using containers?

A. Eliminates any long-term commitments to a technology stack

B. Helps speed up software release cycles and improve software quality

C. Enables services to be delivered in hour or days, not weeks

D. Provides better probability without requiring code changes

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

What is the purpose of a bitmap in snapshot creation?

A. Keeps track of blocks that have changed in the filesystem

B. Indicates the exact address from which data has to be read

C. Indicates the exact address to where data has to be written

D. Keeps track of the number of blocks that are highly utilized

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which method optimizes network performance by distributing network traffic across the shared bandwidth of all the ISLs?

A. Link aggregation

B. Network zoning

C. Network segmentation

D. Link failover

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which process involves determining the optimal resources required to meet seasonal spikes in resource demand?

A. Configuration management

B. Change management

C. Capacity management

D. Incident management

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which task describes adherence to compliance?

A. Ensure security policies are being enforced

B. Define access rights to users

C. Assess the cloud provider\’s capability to provide logs

D. Assess assets with realistic valuations

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which activity is conducted during the service termination phase of the cloud service lifecycle?

A. De-provisioning the service instance

B. Asking for the service contract

C. Establishing the billing policy

D. Providing the final service assessment report

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

In the field of cryptanalysis, what is meant by a “rubber-hose” attack?

A. Forcing the targeted keystream through a hardware-accelerated device such as an ASIC.

B. A backdoor placed into a cryptographic algorithm by its creator.

C. Extraction of cryptographic secrets through coercion or torture.

D. Attempting to decrypt ciphertext by making logical assumptions about the contents of the original plaintext.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

When considering how an attacker may exploit a web server, what is web server footprinting?

A. When an attacker implements a vulnerability scanner to identify weaknesses

B. When an attacker creates a complete profile of the site\’s external links and file structures

C. When an attacker gathers system-level data, including account details and server names

D. When an attacker uses a brute-force attack to crack a web-server password

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

When configuring wireless on his home router, Javik disables SSID broadcast. He leaves authentication “open” but sets the SSID to a 32-character string of random letters and numbers.

What is an accurate assessment of this scenario from a security perspective?

A. Since the SSID is required in order to connect, the 32-character string is sufficient to prevent brute-force attacks.

B. Disabling SSID broadcast prevents 802.11 beacons from being transmitted from the access point, resulting in a valid setup leveraging “security through obscurity”.

C. It is still possible for a hacker to connect to the network after sniffing the SSID from a successful wireless association.

D. Javik\’s router is still vulnerable to wireless hacking attempts because the SSID broadcast setting can be enabled using a specially crafted packet sent to the hardware address of the access point.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

what are common files on a web server that can be misconfigured and provide useful Information for a hacker such as verbose error messages?

A. httpd.conf

B. administration.config

C. idq.dll

D. php.ini

Correct Answer: D

The php.ini file may be a special file for PHP. it\’s where you declare changes to your PHP settings. The server is already configured with standard settings for PHP, which your site will use by default. Unless you would like to vary one or more settings, there\’s no got to create or modify a php.ini file. If you\’d wish to make any changes to settings, please do so through the MultiPHP INI Editor.


Question 5:

What is the common name for a vulnerability disclosure program opened by companies In platforms such as HackerOne?

A. Vulnerability hunting program

B. Bug bounty program

C. White-hat hacking program

D. Ethical hacking program

Correct Answer: B

Bug bounty programs allow independent security researchers to report bugs to an companies and receive rewards or compensation. These bugs area unit sometimes security exploits and vulnerabilities, although they will additionally embody method problems, hardware flaws, and so on. The reports area unit usually created through a program travel by associate degree freelance third party (like Bugcrowd or HackerOne). The companies can got wind of (and run) a program curated to the organization\’s wants. Programs is also non-public (invite-only) wherever reports area unit unbroken confidential to the organization or public (where anyone will sign in and join). they will happen over a collection timeframe or with without stopping date (though the second possibility is a lot of common). Who uses bug bounty programs?Many major organizations use bug bounties as an area of their security program, together with AOL, Android, Apple, Digital Ocean, and goldman Sachs. you\’ll read an inventory of all the programs offered by major bug bounty suppliers, Bugcrowd and HackerOne, at these links. Why do corporations use bug bounty programs?Bug bounty programs provide corporations the flexibility to harness an outsized cluster of hackers so as to seek out bugs in their code. This gives them access to a bigger variety of hackers or testers than they\’d be able to access on a one-on-one basis. It {can also|also will|can even|may also|may} increase the probabilities that bugs area unit found and reported to them before malicious hackers can exploit them. It may also be an honest publicity alternative for a firm. As bug bounties became a lot of common, having a bug bounty program will signal to the general public and even regulators that a corporation incorporates a mature security program. This trend is likely to continue, as some have began to see bug bounty programs as an business normal that all companies ought to invest in. Why do researchers and hackers participate in bug bounty programs?Finding and news bugs via a bug bounty program may end up in each money bonuses and recognition. In some cases, it will be a good thanks to show real-world expertise once you are looking for employment, or will even facilitate introduce you to parents on the protection team within an companies. This can be full time income for a few of us, income to supplement employment, or the way to point out off your skills and find a full time job. It may also be fun! it is a nice (legal) probability to check out your skills against huge companies and government agencies. What area unit the disadvantages of a bug bounty program for independent researchers and hackers?A lot of hackers participate in these varieties of programs, and it will be tough to form a major quantity of cash on the platform. In order to say the reward, the hacker has to be the primary person to submit the bug to the program. meaning that in apply, you may pay weeks searching for a bug to use, solely to be the person to report it and build no cash. Roughly ninety seven of participants on major bug bounty platforms haven\’t sold-out a bug. In fact, a 2019 report from HackerOne confirmed that out of quite three hundred,000 registered users, solely around two.5% received a bounty in their time on the platform. Essentially, most hackers are not creating a lot of cash on these platforms, and really few square measure creating enough to switch a full time wage (plus they do not have advantages like vacation days, insurance, and retirement planning). What square measure the disadvantages of bug bounty programs for organizations?These programs square measure solely helpful if the program ends up in the companies realizeing issues that they weren\’t able to find themselves (and if they\’ll fix those problems)! If the companies is not mature enough to be able to quickly rectify known problems, a bug bounty program is not the right alternative for his or her companies. Also, any bug bounty program is probably going to draw in an outsized range of submissions, several of which can not be high-quality submissions. a corporation must be ready to cope with the exaggerated volume of alerts, and also the risk of a coffee signal to noise magnitude relation (essentially that it\’s probably that they\’re going to receive quite few unhelpful reports for each useful report). Additionally, if the program does not attract enough participants (or participants with the incorrect talent set, and so participants are not able to establish any bugs), the program is not useful for the companies. The overwhelming majority of bug bounty participants consider web site vulnerabilities (72%, per HackerOn), whereas solely a number of (3.5%) value more highly to seek for package vulnerabilities. This is probably because of the actual fact that hacking in operation systems (like network hardware and memory) needs a big quantity of extremely specialised experience. this implies that firms may even see vital come on investment for bug bounties on websites, and not for alternative applications, notably those that need specialised experience. This conjointly implies that organizations which require to look at AN application or web site among a selected time-frame may not need to rely on a bug bounty as there is no guarantee of once or if they receive reports. Finally, it are often probably risky to permit freelance researchers to try to penetrate your network. this could end in public speech act of bugs, inflicting name harm within the limelight (which could end in individuals not eager to purchase the organizations\’ product or service), or speech act of bugs to additional malicious third parties, United Nations agency may use this data to focus on the organization.


Question 6:

An attacker identified that a user and an access point are both compatible with WPA2 and WPA3 encryption. The attacker installed a rogue access point with only WPA2 compatibility in the vicinity and forced the victim to go through the WPA2 four-way handshake to get connected. After the connection was established, the attacker used automated tools to crack WPA2-encrypted messages. What is the attack performed in the above scenario?

A. Timing-based attack

B. Side-channel attack

C. Downgrade security attack

D. Cache-based attack

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Packet Sniffers operate on the Layer 1 of the OSI model.

B. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 2 of the OSI model.

C. Packet Sniffers operate on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 of the OSI model.

D. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 3 of the OSI model.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Ralph, a professional hacker, targeted Jane, who had recently bought new systems for her company. After a few days, Ralph contacted Jane while masquerading as a legitimate customer support executive, informing that her systems need to be serviced for proper functioning and that customer support will send a computer technician. Jane promptly replied positively. Ralph entered Jane\’s company using this opportunity and gathered sensitive information by scanning terminals for passwords, searching for important documents in desks, and rummaging bins. What is the type of attack technique Ralph used on jane?

A. Dumpster diving

B. Eavesdropping

C. Shoulder surfing

D. impersonation

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Leverox Solutions hired Arnold, a security professional, for the threat intelligence process. Arnold collected information about specific threats against the organization. From this information, he retrieved contextual information about security events and incidents that helped him disclose potential risks and gain insight into attacker methodologies. He collected the information from sources such as humans, social media, and chat rooms as well as from events that resulted in cyberattacks. In this process, he also prepared a report that includes identified malicious activities, recommended courses of action, and warnings for emerging attacks. What is the type of threat intelligence collected by Arnold in the above scenario?

A. Strategic threat intelligence

B. Tactical threat intelligence

C. Operational threat intelligence

D. Technical threat intelligence

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which tool can be used to silently copy files from USB devices?

A. USB Grabber

B. USB Snoopy

C. USB Sniffer

D. Use Dumper

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which of the following algorithms can be used to guarantee the integrity of messages being sent, in transit, or stored?

A. symmetric algorithms

B. asymmetric algorithms

C. hashing algorithms

D. integrity algorithms

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Don, a student, came across a gaming app in a third-party app store and Installed it. Subsequently, all the legitimate apps in his smartphone were replaced by deceptive applications that appeared legitimate. He also received many advertisements on his smartphone after Installing the app. What is the attack performed on Don in the above scenario?

A. SMS phishing attack

B. SIM card attack

C. Agent Smith attack

D. Clickjacking

Correct Answer: D

Clickjacking is an attack that tricks a user into clicking a webpage element which is invisible or disguised as another element. this will cause users to unwittingly download malware, visit malicious sites , provide credentials or sensitive information, transfer money, or purchase products online.Typically, clickjacking is performed by displaying an invisible page or HTML element, inside an iframe, on top of the page the user sees. The user believes they\’re clicking the visible page but actually they\’re clicking an invisible element within the additional page transposed on top of it.The invisible page might be a malicious page, or a legitimate page the user didn\’t shall visit ?for instance , a page on the user\’s banking site that authorizes the transfer of cash .There are several variations of the clickjacking attack, such as: Likejacking a way during which the Facebook “Like” button is manipulated, causing users to “like” a page they really didn\’t shall like. Cursorjacking a UI redressing technique that changes the cursor for the position the user perceives to a different position. Cursorjacking relies on vulnerabilities in Flash and therefore the Firefox browser, which have now been fixed. Clickjacking attack example1. The attacker creates a beautiful page which promises to offer the user a free trip to Tahiti.2. within the background the attacker checks if the user is logged into his banking site and if so, loads the screen that permits transfer of funds, using query parameters to insert the attacker\’s bank details into the shape .3. The bank transfer page is displayed in an invisible iframe above the free gift page, with the “Confirm Transfer” button exactly aligned over the “Receive Gift” button visible to the user.4. The user visits the page and clicks the “Book My Free Trip” button.5. actually the user is clicking on the invisible iframe, and has clicked the “Confirm Transfer” button. Funds are transferred to the attacker.6. The user is redirected to a page with information about the free gift (not knowing what happened within the background). This example illustrates that, during a clickjacking attack, the malicious action (on the bank website, during this case) can\’t be traced back to the attacker because the user performed it while being legitimately signed into their own account. Clickjacking mitigationThere are two general ways to defend against clickjacking: Client- side methods the foremost common is named Frame Busting. Client-side methods are often effective in some cases, but are considered to not be a best practice, because they will be easily bypassed. Server-side methods the foremost common is X-Frame-Options. Server-side methods are recommended by security experts as an efficient thanks to defend against clickjacking.


Question 13:

Bob, your senior colleague, has sent you a mail regarding a deal with one of the clients. You are requested to accept the offer and you oblige. After 2 days, Bab denies that he had ever sent a mail. What do you want to “”know”” to prove yourself that it was Bob who had send a mail?

A. Non-Repudiation

B. Integrity

C. Authentication

D. Confidentiality

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

John, a disgruntled ex-employee of an organization, contacted a professional hacker to exploit the organization. In the attack process, the professional hacker Installed a scanner on a machine belonging to one of the vktims and scanned several machines on the same network to Identify vulnerabilities to perform further exploitation. What is the type of vulnerability assessment tool employed by John in the above scenario?

A. Proxy scanner

B. Agent-based scanner

C. Network-based scanner

D. Cluster scanner

Correct Answer: B

Knowing when to include agents into your vulnerability management processes isn\’t an easy decision. Below are common use cases for agent-based vulnerability scanning to assist you build out your combined scanning strategy. Intermittent or Irregular Connectivity: Vulnerability management teams are now tasked with scanning devices that access the company network remotely using public or home-based Wi-Fi connections. These connections are often unreliable and intermittent leading to missed network-based scans. Fortunately, the scanning frequency of agents doesn\’t require a network connection. The agent detects when the device is back online, sending scan data when it\’s ready to communicate with the VM platform. Connecting Non-Corporate Devices to Corporate Networks:With the increased use of private devices, company networks are more exposed to malware and infections thanks to limited IT and security teams\’ control and visibility. Agent-based scanning gives security teams insight into weaknesses on non-corporate endpoints, keeping them informed about professional hacker is potential attack vectors in order that they can take appropriate action. Endpoints Residing Outside of Company Networks: Whether company-issued or BYOD, remote assets frequently hook up with the web outside of traditional network bounds. An agent that resides on remote endpoints conducts regular, authenticated scans checking out system changes and unpatched software. The results are then sent back to the VM platform and combined with other scan results for review, prioritization, and mitigation planning.


Question 15:

Gerard, a disgruntled ex-employee of Sunglass IT Solutions, targets this organization to perform sophisticated attacks and bring down its reputation in the market. To launch the attacks process, he performed DNS footprinting to gather information about ONS servers and to identify the hosts connected in the target network. He used an automated tool that can retrieve information about DNS zone data including DNS domain names, computer names. IP addresses. DNS records, and network Who is records. He further exploited this information to launch other sophisticated attacks. What is the tool employed by Gerard in the above scenario?

A. Knative

B. zANTI

C. Towelroot

D. Bluto

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

The receive end performs BIP-8 check for the unscrambled STM-16 frame. If the BIP-8 check result XOR the value of the B1 byte contained in the following STM-16 frame is 10001100, it indicates that () bit error blocks exist in the STM-16 frame.

A. 5

B. 3

C. 6

D. Unclear

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

The EPL service exclusively uses bandwidth on the line, which is highly secure. It is applicable to the private line application of VIP customers.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which of the following statements about clock sources is incorrect?

A. Internal clock sources have the lowest priority because of their low precision.

B. Generally, tributary clocks are not used as the clock sources of devices.

C. The same SSM protocol is selected for all NEs in a clock protection subnet.

D. If the standard SSM protocol is enabled, you need to set the clock source ID.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which of the following methods can be used to multiplex lower-order ODUk to higher-order ODUk?

A. Time division multiplexing

B. Wavelength division multiplexing

C. Space division multiplexing

D. Frequency division multiplexing

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of the following can be the center wavelengths of the pump sources in an EDFA? (Multiple Choice)

A. 980 nm

B. 1510 nm

C. 1480 nm

D. 1310 nm

Correct Answer: AC


Question 6:

Which of the following are communication quality alarms? (Multiple Choice)

A. Optical port loopback

B. No login of an NE user

C. NE communication interruption

D. Loss of optical signals

Correct Answer: CD


Question 7:

LCK insertion has priority over AIS insertion. That is, if a user configures LCK insertion and the conditions of automatic AIS insertion are met, LCK is inserted.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which of the following is not the advantage of WDM?

A. Ultra-large capacity and transparent data transmission

B. Easy to upgrade and maximizing the protection for existing investments

C. Completely substituting for SDH devices

D. Compatible with all optical switching networks in the future

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A MAC address consists of 48 bits and is globally unique. Which of the following is the meaning of the MAC address whose eighth bit is 1?

A. Unicast address

B. Bicast address

C. Multicast address

D. Broadcast address

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

SES: There are 5% or more than 5% bit error blocks or at least one defect (OCI/AIS/LCKAAE/LTCA1M/PLM) within one second.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which of the following statements about an MSP ring are correct? (Multiple Choice)

A. The number of nodes on an MSP ring cannot exceed 16.

B. When creating a protection subnet, select SDH NEs only. Do not select REG or WDM NEs.

C. When multiple protection subnets occupy the same port on the same board, you must select “Resource Sharing”.

D. “Assigned by VC4” means that different VC4s are assigned to different protection subnets to achieve MSP only in some channels.

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 12:

The 1310 nm and 1550 nm transmission windows are low-loss windows. In DWDM systems, only the 1550 nm transmission window is used. Which of the following is the major cause?

A. The working wavelength flatness area of the EDFA is included in this window.

B. The non-linear effect of the 1550 nm wavelength area is small.

C. The 1550 nm wavelength area is applicable to long-haul transmission.

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

The pointer is used for alignment and indicates the start position of VC-n in the corresponding AU or TU frame. In this way, the receive end can correctly remove the corresponding VC from the STM-N, and then split the VC and C encapsulation to separate low-rate signals, such as PDH. That is, low-rate tributary signals can be directly dropped from the STM-N signal.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

OChr means that the electrical supervisory technology is used.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

By default, the B2-EXC alarm is reported when the number of B2 bit errors exceeds the ( ) threshold.

A. 0.000000001

B. 0.00001

C. 0.001

D. 0.01

Correct Answer: C