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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer is deploying Guest Self-Registration with Sponsor Approval but does not like the format of the sponsor email. Where can you change the sponsor email?

A. in the Receipt Page – Actions

B. in the Sponsor Confirmation section

C. in me Configuration – Receipts – Email Receipts

D. in the Configuration – Receipts – Templates

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

While configuring a guest solution, the customer is requesting that guest user receive access for four hours from their first login. Which Guest Account Expiration would you select?

A. expire_after

B. do_expire

C. expire_time

D. expire_ postlogin

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer has configured the Aruba Controller for administrative authentication using ClearPass as a TACACS server. During testing, the read-only user is getting the root access role. What could be a possible reason for this behavior? (Select two.)

A. The Controllers Admin Authentication Options Default role is mapped to toot.

B. The ClearPass user role associated to the read-only user is wrong

C. The Controller Server Group Match Rules are changing the user role

D. The read-only enforcement profile is mapped to the root role

E. On the Controller, the TACAC$ authentication server Is not configured for Session authorization

Correct Answer: CE


Question 4:

You have recently implemented a serf-registration portal in ClearPass Guest to be used on a Guest SSID broadcast from an Aruba controller. Your customer has started complaining that the users are not able to reliably access the internet after clicking the login button on the receipt page. They tell you that the users will click the login button multiple times and alter about a minute they gain access. What could be causing this issue?

A. The self-registration page is configured with a 1 minute login delay.

B. The guest client is delayed getting an IP address from the DHCP server.

C. The guest users are assigned a firewall user role that has a rate limit.

D. The enforcement profile on ClearPass is set up with an lETF:session delay.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit:

A year ago, your customer deployed an Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager Server for a Guest SSIC hosted in an IAP Cluster. The customer just created a new Web Login Page for the Guest SSID. Even though the previous Web Login page worked test with the new Web Login Page are falling and the customer has

forwarded you the above screenshots.

What recommendation would you give the customer to tix the issue?

A. The service type configured is not correct. The Guest authentication should De an Application authentication type of service.

B. The customer should reset the password tor the username [email protected] com using Guest Manage Accounts

C. The Address filed under the WebLogin Vendor settings is not configured correctly, it should be set to instant arubanetworks.com

D. The WebLogin Pre-Auth Check is set to Aruba Application Authentication which requires a separate application service on the policy manager

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer has configured Onboard and Windows devices work as expected but cannot get the Apple iOS devices to Onboard successfully. Where would you look to troubleshoot the Issued (Select two)

A. Check if the ClearPass HTTPS server certificate installed in the server is issued by a trusted commercial certificate authority.

B. Check if the customer installed the internal PKl Root certificate presented by the ClearPass during the provisioning process.

C. Check if a DNS entry is available for the ClearPass hostname in the certificate, resolvable from the DNS server assigned to the client.

D. Check if the customer has Instated a custom HTTPS certificate for IDS and another internal PKl HTTPS certificate for other devices.

E. Check if the customer has installed the same internal PKl signed RADIUS server certificate as the HTTPS server certificate.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer has configured onboard in a cluster with two nodes All devices were onboarded in the network through node1 but those clients tail to authenticate through node2 with the error shown. What steps would you suggest to make provisioning and authentication work across the entire cluster? (Select three.)

A. Have all of the BYOD clients re-run the Onboard process

B. Configure the Onboard Root CA to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate root.

C. Have all of the BYOD clients disconnect and reconnect to me network

D. Make sure that the EAP certificates on both nodes are issued by one common root Certificate Authority (CA).

E. Make sure that the HTTPS certificate on both nodes is issued as a Code Signing certificate

F. Configure the Network Settings in Onboard to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate

Correct Answer: BDF


Question 8:

What is the Open SSID (otherwise referred to as Dual SSID) Onboard deployment service workflow?

A. OnBoard Pre-Auth Application service, OnBoard Authorization Application service. OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service

B. OnBoard Pre-Auth RADIUS service. OnBoard Authorization Application service. OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service

C. OnBoard Authorization Application service, OnBoard Pre-Auth Application service, OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service

D. OnBoard Authorization RADIUS service, OnBoard Pre-Auth Application service, OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A customer has completed all the required configurations in the Windows server in order for Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) to sign Onboard device TLS certificates. The Onboard portal and the Onboard services are also configured. Testing shows that the Client certificates ate still signed by the Onboard Certificate Authority and not ADCS. How can you help the customer with the situation?

A. Educate the customer that, when integrating with Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) the Onboard CA will the same authority used for signing me final TLS certificate of the device.

B. Configure the identity certificate signer as Active Directory Certificate Services and enter the ADCS URL http://ADCSVVeoEnrollmentServemostname/certsrv in the OnBoard Provisioning settings.

C. Enable access to EST servers from the Certificate Authority to make ClearPass Onboard to use of the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) web enrollment to sign the device TLS certificates.

D. Enable access to SCEP servers from the Certificate Authority to make ClearPass Onboard to use of the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) web enrollment to sign the device TLS certificates.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer has just configured a Posture Policy and the T2-Healthcheck Service. Next they installed the

OnGuard Agent on Secure_Employee SSID. When they check Access Tracker they see many WEBAUTH

requests are being triggered.

What could be the reason?

A. OnGuard Web-Based Health Check interval has been wrongly configured to three minutes.

B. The OnGuard Agent trigger the events based on changing the Health Status

C. TCP port 6658 is not allowed between the client and the ClearPass server

D. The OnGuard Agent is connecting to the Data Port interface on ClearPass

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit: You have configured Onboard but me customer could not onboard one of his devices and has sent you the above screenshots. How could you resolve the issue?

A. Instruct the user to delete the profile on one of their other BYOD devices.

B. Instruct the user to run the Quick connect application in Sponsor Mode.

C. Increase the maximum number of devices allowed by the individual user account.

D. Increase the maximum number of devices that all users can provision to 3.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Refer to the Exhibit:

A customer wants to integrate posture validation into an Aruba Wireless 802.1X authentication service

During testing, the client connects to the Aruba Employee Secure SSID and is redirected to the Captive Portal page where the user can download the OnGuard Agent After the Agent is installed, the client receives the Healthy token the client remains connected to the Captive Portal page ClearPass is assigning the endpoint the following roles: T2-Staff-User. (Machine Authenticated! and T2-SOL-Device. What could cause this behavior?

A. The Enforcement Policy conditions for rule 1 are not configured correctly.

B. Used Cached Results: has not been enabled In the Aruba 802.1X Wireless Service

C. RFC-3576 Is not configured correctly on the Aruba Controller and does not update the role.

D. The Enforcement Profile should bounce the connection instead of a Terminate session

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

When is it recommended to use a certificate with multiple entries on the Subject Alternative Name?

A. The ClearPass servers are placed in different OnGuard zones to allow the client agent to send SHV updates.

B. Using the same certificate to Onboard clients and the Guest Captive Portal on a single ClearPass server.

C. The primary authentication server Is not available to authenticate the users.

D. The ClearPass server will be hosting captive portal pages for multiple FQDN entries

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A customer has created a Guest Sett-Registration page that they would like to use it as `template\’ for all the new pages that are going to be created from now on. Their goal is to ensure that the header and footer on every page are the same, and any edits made to them are automatically reflected on every Self-Registration Page. What should be configured in order to accomplish this request?

A. Save the “template” page as Master Self-Registration page

B. Create child pages when creating new Self-Registration pages and select the “template” as Parent

C. Save this “template” page as a new Skin to be used on other Self-Registration pages

D. Copy the “template” page and edit it each time a new Self-Registration Page is needed

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

How does the RadSec improve the RADIUS message exchange? (Select two.)

A. It can be used on an unsecured network or the Internet.

B. It builds a TTLS tunnel between the NAD and ClearPass.

C. Only the NAD needs to trust the ClearPass Certificate.

D. It encrypts the entire RADIUS message.

E. It uses UDP to exchange the radius packets.

Correct Answer: DE


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Question 1:

Your company policies require encryption of sensitive data at rest. You are considering the possible options for protecting data while storing it at rest on an EBS data volume, attached to an EC2 instance.

Which of these options would allow you to encrypt your data at rest? (Choose three.)

A. Implement third party volume encryption tools

B. Implement SSL/TLS for all services running on the server

C. Encrypt data inside your applications before storing it on EBS

D. Encrypt data using native data encryption drivers at the file system level

E. Do nothing as EBS volumes are encrypted by default

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 2:

A customer is deploying an SSL enabled web application to AWS and would like to implement a separation of roles between the EC2 service administrators that are entitled to login to instances as well as making API calls and the security officers who will maintain and have exclusive access to the application\’s X.509 certificate that contains the private key.

A. Upload the certificate on an S3 bucket owned by the security officers and accessible only by EC2 Role of the web servers.

B. Configure the web servers to retrieve the certificate upon boot from an CloudHSM is managed by the security officers.

C. Configure system permissions on the web servers to restrict access to the certificate only to the authority security officers

D. Configure IAM policies authorizing access to the certificate store only to the security officers and terminate SSL on an ELB.

Correct Answer: D

You\’ll terminate the SSL at ELB. and the web request will get unencrypted to the EC2 instance, even if the certs are stored in S3, it has to be configured on the web servers or load balancers somehow, which becomes difficult if the keys are stored in S3. However, keeping the keys in the cert store and using IAM to restrict access gives a clear separation of concern between security officers and developers. Developer\’s personnel can still configure SSL on ELB without actually handling the keys.


Question 3:

You have recently joined a startup company building sensors to measure street noise and air quality in urban areas. The company has been running a pilot deployment of around 100 sensors for 3 months each sensor uploads 1KB of sensor

data every minute to a backend hosted on AWS.

During the pilot, you measured a peak or 10 IOPS on the database, and you stored an average of 3GB of sensor data per month in the database. The current deployment consists of a load-balanced auto scaled Ingestion layer using EC2

instances and a PostgreSQL RDS database with 500GB standard storage. The pilot is considered a success and your CEO has managed to get the attention or some potential investors. The business plan requires a deployment of at least

100K sensors which needs to be supported by the backend. You also need to store sensor data for at least two years to be able to compare year over year Improvements.

To secure funding, you have to make sure that the platform meets these requirements and leaves room for further scaling.

Which setup win meet the requirements?

A. Add an SQS queue to the ingestion layer to buffer writes to the RDS instance

B. Ingest data into a DynamoDB table and move old data to a Redshift cluster

C. Replace the RDS instance with a 6 node Redshift cluster with 96TB of storage

D. Keep the current architecture but upgrade RDS storage to 3TB and 10K provisioned IOPS

Correct Answer: C

The POC solution is being scaled up by 1000, which means it will require 72TB of Storage to retain 24 months\’ worth of data. This rules out RDS as a possible DB solution which leaves you with Redshift.

I believe DynamoDB is a more cost effective and scales better for ingest rather than using EC2 in an auto scaling group.

Also, this example solution from AWS is somewhat similar for reference.


Question 4:

A web company is looking to implement an intrusion detection and prevention system into their deployed VPC. This platform should have the ability to scale to thousands of instances running inside of the VPC.

How should they architect their solution to achieve these goals?

A. Configure an instance with monitoring software and the elastic network interface (ENI) set to promiscuous mode packet sniffing to see an traffic across the VPC.

B. Create a second VPC and route all traffic from the primary application VPC through the second VPC where the scalable virtualized IDS/IPS platform resides.

C. Configure servers running in the VPC using the host-based \’route\’ commands to send all traffic through the platform to a scalable virtualized IDS/IPS.

D. Configure each host with an agent that collects all network traffic and sends that traffic to the IDS/IPS platform for inspection.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A company is storing data on Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3). The company\’s security policy mandates that data is encrypted at rest.

Which of the following methods can achieve this? (Choose three.)

A. Use Amazon S3 server-side encryption with AWS Key Management Service managed keys.

B. Use Amazon S3 server-side encryption with customer-provided keys.

C. Use Amazon S3 server-side encryption with EC2 key pair.

D. Use Amazon S3 bucket policies to restrict access to the data at rest.

E. Encrypt the data on the client-side before ingesting to Amazon S3 using their own master key.

F. Use SSL to encrypt the data while in transit to Amazon S3.

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/UsingKMSEncryption.html


Question 6:

Your firm has uploaded a large amount of aerial image data to S3. In the past, in your on-premises environment, you used a dedicated group of servers to oaten process this data and used Rabbit MQ – An open source messaging system to get job information to the servers. Once processed the data would go to tape and be shipped offsite. Your manager told you to stay with the current design, and leverage AWS archival storage and messaging services to minimize cost.

Which is correct?

A. Use SQS for passing job messages use Cloud Watch alarms to terminate EC2 worker instances when they become idle. Once data is processed, change the storage class of the S3 objects to Reduced Redundancy Storage.

B. Setup Auto-Scaled workers triggered by queue depth that use spot instances to process messages in SOS Once data is processed, change the storage class of the S3 objects to Reduced Redundancy Storage.

C. Setup Auto-Scaled workers triggered by queue depth that use spot instances to process messages in SQS Once data is processed, change the storage class of the S3 objects to Glacier.

D. Use SNS to pass job messages use Cloud Watch alarms to terminate spot worker instances when they become idle. Once data is processed, change the storage class of the S3 object to Glacier.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

You\’ve been hired to enhance the overall security posture for a very large e-commerce site. They have a well architected multi-tier application running in a VPC that uses ELBs in front of both the web and the app tier with static assets served directly from S3. They are using a combination of RDS and DynamoDB for their dynamic data and then archiving nightly into S3 for further processing with EMR. They are concerned because they found questionable log entries and suspect someone is attempting to gain unauthorized access.

Which approach provides a cost effective scalable mitigation to this kind of attack?

A. Recommend that they lease space at a DirectConnect partner location and establish a 1G DirectConnect connection to their VPC they would then establish Internet connectivity into their space, filter the traffic in hardware Web Application Firewall (WAF). And then pass the traffic through the DirectConnect connection into their application running in their VPC.

B. Add previously identified hostile source IPs as an explicit INBOUND DENY NACL to the web tier subnet.

C. Add a WAF tier by creating a new ELB and an AutoScaling group of EC2 Instances running a host-based WAF. They would redirect Route 53 to resolve to the new WAF tier ELB. The WAF tier would their pass the traffic to the current web tier The web tier Security Groups would be updated to only allow traffic from the WAF tier Security Group

D. Remove all but TLS 1.2 from the web tier ELB and enable Advanced Protocol Filtering. This will enable the ELB itself to perform WAF functionality.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Your company is in the process of developing a next generation pet collar that collects biometric information to assist families with promoting healthy lifestyles for their pets. Each collar will push 30kb of biometric data in JSON format every 2 seconds to a collection platform that will process and analyze the data providing health trending information back to the pet owners and veterinarians via a web portal. Management has tasked you to architect the collection platform ensuring the following requirements are met.

1.

Provide the ability for real-time analytics of the inbound biometric data

2.

Ensure processing of the biometric data is highly durable. Elastic and parallel

3.

The results of the analytic processing should be persisted for data mining

Which architecture outlined below win meet the initial requirements for the collection platform?

A. Utilize S3 to collect the inbound sensor data analyze the data from S3 with a daily scheduled Data Pipeline and save the results to a Redshift Cluster.

B. Utilize Amazon Kinesis to collect the inbound sensor data, analyze the data with Kinesis clients and save the results to a Redshift cluster using EMR.

C. Utilize SQS to collect the inbound sensor data analyze the data from SQS with Amazon Kinesis and save the results to a Microsoft SQL Server RDS instance.

D. Utilize EMR to collect the inbound sensor data, analyze the data from EUR with Amazon Kinesis and save me results to DynamoDB.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

You are designing Internet connectivity for your VPC. The Web servers must be available on the Internet. The application must have a highly available architecture.

Which alternatives should you consider? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a NAT instance in your VPC. Create a default route via the NAT instance and associate it with all subnets. Configure a DNS A record that points to the NAT instance public IP address.

B. Configure a CloudFront distribution and configure the origin to point to the private IP addresses of your Web servers. Configure a Route53 CNAME record to your CloudFront distribution.

C. Place all your web servers behind ELB. Configure a Route53 CNMIE to point to the ELB DNS name.

D. Assign EIPs to all web servers. Configure a Route53 record set with all EIPs, with health checks and DNS failover.

E. Configure ELB with an EIP. Place all your Web servers behind ELB. Configure a Route53 A record that points to the EIP.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 10:

Your team has a tomcat-based Java application you need to deploy into development, test and production environments. After some research, you opt to use Elastic Beanstalk due to its tight integration with your developer tools and RDS due to its ease of management. Your QA team lead points out that you need to roll a sanitized set of production data into your environment on a nightly basis. Similarly, other software teams in your org want access to that same restored data via their EC2 instances in your VPC.

The optimal setup for persistence and security that meets the above requirements would be the following.

A. Create your RDS instance as part of your Elastic Beanstalk definition and alter its security group to allow access to it from hosts in your application subnets.

B. Create your RDS instance separately and add its IP address to your application\’s DB connection strings in your code Alter its security group to allow access to it from hosts within your VPC\’s IP address block.

C. Create your RDS instance separately and pass its DNS name to your app\’s DB connection string as an environment variable. Create a security group for client machines and add it as a valid source for DB traffic to the security group of the RDS instance itself.

D. Create your RDS instance separately and pass its DNS name to your\’s DB connection string as an environment variable Alter its security group to allow access to It from hosts in your application subnets.

Correct Answer: A

Elastic Beanstalk provides support for running Amazon RDS instances in your Elastic Beanstalk environment. This works great for development and testing environments, but is not ideal for a production environment because it ties the lifecycle of the database instance to the lifecycle of your application\’s environment. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/elasticbeanstalk/latest/dg/AWSHowTo.RDS.html


Question 11:

Your company has an on-premises multi-tier PHP web application, which recently experienced downtime due to a large burst in web traffic due to a company announcement Over the coming days, you are expecting similar announcements to drive similar unpredictable bursts, and are looking to find ways to quickly improve your infrastructures ability to handle unexpected increases in traffic. The application currently consists of 2 tiers a web tier which consists of a load balancer and several Linux Apache web servers as well as a database tier which hosts a Linux server hosting a MySQL database.

Which scenario below will provide full site functionality, while helping to improve the ability of your application in the short timeframe required?

A. Failover environment: Create an S3 bucket and configure it for website hosting. Migrate your DNS to Route53 using zone file import, and leverage Route53 DNS failover to failover to the S3 hosted website.

B. Hybrid environment: Create an AMI, which can be used to launch web servers in EC2. Create an Auto Scaling group, which uses the AMI to scale the web tier based on incoming traffic. Leverage Elastic Load Balancing to balance traffic between on-premises web servers and those hosted in AWS.

C. Offload traffic from on-premises environment: Setup a CIoudFront distribution, and configure CloudFront to cache objects from a custom origin. Choose to customize your object cache behavior, and select a TTL that objects should exist in cache.

D. Migrate to AWS: Use VM Import/Export to quickly convert an on-premises web server to an AMI. Create an Auto Scaling group, which uses the imported AMI to scale the web tier based on incoming traffic. Create an RDS read replica and setup replication between the RDS instance and on-premises MySQL server to migrate the database.

Correct Answer: C

You can have CloudFront sit in front of your on-prem web environment, via a custom origin (the origin doesn\’t have to be in AWS). This would protect against unexpected bursts in traffic by letting CloudFront handle the traffic that it can out of cache, thus hopefully removing some of the load from your on-prem web servers.


Question 12:

You are implementing AWS Direct Connect. You intend to use AWS public service end points such as Amazon S3, across the AWS Direct Connect link. You want other Internet traffic to use your existing link to an Internet Service Provider.

What is the correct way to configure AWS Direct connect for access to services such as Amazon S3?

A. Configure a public Interface on your AWS Direct Connect link. Configure a static route via your AWS Direct Connect link that points to Amazon S3 Advertise a default route to AWS using BGP.

B. Create a private interface on your AWS Direct Connect link. Configure a static route via your AWS Direct connect link that points to Amazon S3 Configure specific routes to your network in your VPC.

C. Create a public interface on your AWS Direct Connect link. Redistribute BGP routes into your existing routing infrastructure; advertise specific routes for your network to AWS.

D. Create a private interface on your AWS Direct connect link. Redistribute BGP routes into your existing routing infrastructure and advertise a default route to AWS.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/directconnect/faqs/


Question 13:

Your application is using an ELB in front of an Auto Scaling group of web/application servers deployed across two AZs and a Multi-AZ RDS Instance for data persistence. The database CPU is often above 80% usage and 90% of I/O operations on the database are reads. To improve performance you recently added a single-node Memcached ElastiCache Cluster to cache frequent DB query results. In the next weeks the overall workload is expected to grow by 30%.

Do you need to change anything in the architecture to maintain the high availability or the application with the anticipated additional load? Why?

A. Yes, you should deploy two Memcached ElastiCache Clusters in different AZs because the RDS instance will not be able to handle the load if the cache node fails.

B. No, if the cache node fails you can always get the same data from the DB without having any availability impact.

C. No, if the cache node fails the automated ElastiCache node recovery feature will prevent any availability impact.

D. Yes, you should deploy the Memcached ElastiCache Cluster with two nodes in the same AZ as the RDS DB master instance to handle the load if one cache node fails.

Correct Answer: A

ElastiCache for Memcached The primary goal of caching is typically to offload reads from your database or other primary data source. In most apps, you have hot spots of data that are regularly queried, but only updated periodically. Think of the front page of a blog or news site, or the top 100 leaderboard in an online game. In this type of case, your app can receive dozens, hundreds, or even thousands of requests for the same data before it\’s updated again. Having your caching layer handle these queries has several advantages. First, it\’s considerably cheaper to add an in-memory cache than to scale up to a larger database cluster. Second, an in-memory cache is also easier to scale out, because it\’s easier to distribute an in-memory cache horizontally than a relational database. Last, a caching layer provides a request buffer in the event of a sudden spike in usage. If your app or game ends up on the front page of Reddit or the App Store, it\’s not unheard of to see a spike that is 10 to 100 times your normal application load. Even if you autoscale your application instances, a 10x request spike will likely make your database very unhappy. Let\’s focus on ElastiCache for Memcached first, because it is the best fit for a cachingfocused solution. We\’ll revisit Redis later in the paper, and weigh its advantages and disadvantages. Architecture with ElastiCache for Memcached When you deploy an ElastiCache Memcached cluster, it sits in your application as a separate tier alongside your database. As mentioned previously, Amazon ElastiCache does not directly communicate with your database tier, or indeed have any particular knowledge of your database. A simplified deployment for a web application looks something like this: In this architecture diagram, the Amazon EC2 application instances are in an Auto Scaling group, located behind a load balancer using Elastic Load Balancing, which distributes requests among the instances. As requests come into a given EC2 instance, that EC2 instance is responsible for communicating with ElastiCache and the database tier. For development purposes, you can begin with a single ElastiCache node to test your application, and then scale to additional cluster nodes by modifying the ElastiCache cluster. As you add additional cache nodes, the EC2 application instances are able to distribute cache keys across multiple ElastiCache nodes. The most common practice is to use client-side sharding to distribute keys across cache nodes, which we will discuss later in this paper.

When you launch an ElastiCache cluster, you can choose the Availability Zone(s) that the cluster lives in. For best performance, you should configure your cluster to use the same Availability Zones as your application servers. To launch an ElastiCache cluster in a specific Availability Zone, make sure to specify the Preferred Zone(s) option during cache cluster creation. The Availability Zones that you specify will be where ElastiCache will launch your cache nodes. We recommend that you select Spread Nodes Across Zones, which tells ElastiCache to distribute cache nodes across these zones as evenly as possible. This distribution will mitigate the impact of an Availability Zone disruption on your ElastiCache nodes. The trade-off is that some of the requests from your application to ElastiCache will go to a node in a different Availability Zone, meaning latency will be slightly higher. For more details, refer to Creating a Cache Cluster in the Amazon ElastiCache User Guide. As mentioned at the outset, ElastiCache can be coupled with a wide variety of databases. Here is an example architecture that uses Amazon DynamoDB instead of Amazon RDS and MySQL: This combination of DynamoDB and ElastiCache is very popular with mobile and game companies, because DynamoDB allows for higher write throughput at lower cost than traditional relational databases. In addition, DynamoDB uses a key-value access pattern similar to ElastiCache, which also simplifies the programming model. Instead of using relational SQL for the primary database but then key-value patterns for the cache, both the primary database and cache can be programmed similarly. In this architecture pattern, DynamoDB remains the source of truth for data, but application reads are offloaded to ElastiCache for a speed boost.


Question 14:

An ERP application is deployed across multiple AZs in a single region. In the event of failure, the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) must be less than 3 hours, and the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) must be 15 minutes. The customer realizes that data corruption occurred roughly 1.5 hours ago.

What DR strategy could be used to achieve this RTO and RPO in the event of this kind of failure?

A. Take hourly DB backups to S3, with transaction logs stored in S3 every 5 minutes.

B. Use synchronous database master-slave replication between two availability zones.

C. Take hourly DB backups to EC2 Instance store volumes with transaction logs stored In S3 every 5 minutes.

D. Take 15 minute DB backups stored In Glacier with transaction logs stored in S3 every 5 minutes.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You are designing the network infrastructure for an application server in Amazon VPC. Users will access all application instances from the Internet, as well as from an on-premises network. The on-premises network is connected to your VPC over an AWS Direct Connect link.

How would you design routing to meet the above requirements?

A. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the Internet gateway. Propagate a default route via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing table with all VPC subnets.

B. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the Internet gateway. Propagate specific routes for the on-premises networks via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing table with all VPC subnets.

C. Configure a single routing table with two default routes: on to the Internet via an Internet gateway, the other to the on-premises network via the VPN gateway. Use this routing table across all subnets in the VPC.

D. Configure two routing tables: on that has a default router via the Internet gateway, and other that has a default route via the VPN gateway. Associate both routing tables with each VPC subnet.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Scenario: Rollins Manufacturing

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Rollins Manufacturing is a major supplier in the automotive industry, headquartered in Cleveland, Ohio with manufacturing plants in Chicago, Sao Paulo, Stuttgart, Yokohama, and Seoul. Each of these plants has been operating its own

Manufacturing Requirements Planning (MRPII) system, production scheduling, and custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant.

Rollins is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was determined that a significant reduction

in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current MRPII and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the Cleveland data center. This central system would provide support to each

of the plants replacing the functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some cases, a third-

party contractor could provide those staff.

The Rollins Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature, well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF 9.At a recent meeting, the

Architecture Review Board approved a Request for Architecture Work from the Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations who is the project sponsor. The request covered the initial architectural investigations and the development of

a comprehensive architecture to plan the transformation.

The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some of the plant managers have

expressed concern about the security and reliability of driving their MRPII and production scheduling from a central system located in Cleveland. The Chief Engineer wants to know how these concerns can be addressed.

Refer to the Rollins Manufacturing Scenario:

You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect for the Common ERP Deployment architecture project.

One of the earliest initiatives in the Enterprise Architecture program at Rollins was the definition of a set of IT principles and architecture principles that are well aligned with the overall enterprise principles. These now need to be updated to

address the concerns raised.

You have been asked to select a set of principles most appropriate for guiding the team to define a robust solution.

[Note: You should assume that Rollins has adopted the example set of principles that are listed and defined in TOGAF 9, Section 23.6.]

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. Common-use Applications, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure, Interoperability, Control Technical Diversity.

B. Business Continuity, Service-orientation, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure, Responsive Change Management.

C. Maximize Benefit to the Enterprise, Business Continuity, Common-use Applications, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure.

D. Information Management is Everybody\’s Business, IT Responsibility, Data Trustee, Technology Independence, Responsive Change Management.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Scenario: Global Mobile 1

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Global Mobile is a mobile telecommunications company formed through a series of mergers and acquisitions. They are yet to fully integrate the customer service systems for the most recent acquisitions, and as result, customer service has been a major concern for the Chief Technology Officer.

Results for the last two quarters have shown that Average Revenue Per User (ARPU) and the customer retention (Churn) rate have fallen below the industry average. The Corporate Marketing group has published some new findings about customer satisfaction. The customers appear to be switching to Air Light, a competitor, because of superior customer service. Global Mobile actually has better coverage in nearly all markets than Air Light, and good roaming agreements that keep rates low for business travelers. But, customer satisfaction has remained low.

The Business Strategy group and the Enterprise Architecture group have conducted a high-level project to develop the enterprise-wide strategic plan. They have developed a business scenario which contains a good conceptual model of what needs to be done, and also identifies the key requirements. This was used in preparing the proposal presented to the Executive Council and the Corporate Board.

The planning for the program has been underway for several months. Global Mobile has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture.

The Corporate Board has approved funding for a multi-million Euro conversion to transition to a packaged Customer Service System. It is anticipated that the overall program will take five years to complete, but there are some tactical projects that can commence immediately to address the situation. The Corporate Board has placed one additional major constraint on the program. In addition to achieving the business outcomes directly related to improving overall customer service within each business unit, the Corporate Board expects the Target Architecture to produce an additional saving of at least 30% over current operating costs through energy efficiency initiatives, virtualization of servers and workstations, and expanded telecommuting and desk-sharing. This Green initiative is intended to become a model for future investments at all company facilities worldwide.

Refer to Global Mobile scenario

You have been engaged as a consultant to advise the Chief Architect on the best ways to approach to the implementation planning activities for this significant business transformation.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer? (Is this the right answers to choose?)

A. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The horizontal scope of the Green initiative would make the Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization\’s TOGAF-based Enterprise Architecture framework difficult to manage and govern. This approach to planning was better applied within the vertical scope of a business unit.

B. You recommend that the implementation planning activities be conducted using Capability-Based Planning. This is appropriate because the Green initiative is an enterprise-wide plan with a horizontal scope. Its metrics are aggregated at the enterprise level. It is crucial to gain business unit support and cooperation to achieve the broader business outcomes which will benefit all.

C. The Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization\’s TOGAF-based Enterprise Architecture framework is focused on business outcomes. The Green initiative is an infrastructure program that is technical in nature; therefore, it would not be appropriate to use the Capability-Based Planning approach. Instead, the Global Mobile systems development lifecycle approach should be utilized to develop the Solution Architecture.

D. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The Capability-Based Planning approach is normally only used in public sector, defense-related programs. This approach is not appropriate for a private sector company.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Scenario: Vittronics Ltd.

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Vittronics Ltd. is a leading medical device manufacturer in the highly competitive market for Migraine Headache Pain Management (MHPM) devices. These tiny wireless devices are implanted in the brain and can deliver a precise electric shock when the wearable Pain Control Unit (PCU) detects an increase in stress induced by the onset of a migraine headache.

This technology will be a breakthrough in the treatment of this condition, and several competitors are striving to be the first to introduce a product into the market. However, all of them must demonstrate the effectiveness and safety of their products in a set of clinical trials that will satisfy the regulatory requirements of the countries in the target markets.

The Enterprise Architecture group at Vittronics has been engaged in an architecture development project to create a Secure Private Immersive Collaborative Environment (SPICE) that will allow researchers at its product development laboratories worldwide to share information about their independent clinical trials.

The Vittronics Enterprise Architecture group is a mature organization that has been utilizing TOGAF for several years. They have recently upgraded to TOGAF 9. The Vittronics Architecture Development Method (VADM) is strictly based on the TOGAF 9 Architecture Development Method (ADM) with extensions required to support current good manufacturing practices and good laboratory practices in their target markets.

The SPICE project team has now completed the Business, Information Systems, and Technology Architecture phases and has produced a complete set of deliverables for each phase. Due to the highly sensitive nature of the information that is managed in SPICE, special care was taken to ensure that each architecture domain included an examination of the security and privacy issues that are relevant for each domain. A corresponding SPICE Security Architecture has been defined.

The Executive Vice President for Clinical Research is the sponsor of the Enterprise Architecture activity.

Refer to the Vittronics Ltd Scenario:

You are serving as the Lead Architect for the SPICE project team.

As required by TOGAF, the SPICE project team res completed a Business Transformation Readiness Assessment in Phase A (Architecture Vision). In that assessment, it was determined that there are risks associated with the adoption of the Immersive Collaborative Environment. Despite a clear expression of the vision and the business need for utilizing SPICE to accelerate the clinical trials, the researchers have been resisting the change because of concerns about safeguarding individually identifiable information about the subjects who were participating in the trials.

You have been asked to recommend how this situation be managed in the implementation planning phases.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You decide that in Phase E, the team creates an overall solutions strategy that can guide the Target Architecture implementation and structure the Transition Architectures. You check that there is consensus before proceeding.

B. You decide to return to Phase A, where the team should brainstorm a technical solution that mitigates the residual risks presented by the privacy issue. Then, during Phase D, you will direct the team to develop an Architecture Building Block to manage the security risks. After that, the team should select Solution Building Blocks that mitigate all of the identified risks and revise the Requirements Impact Statement to reflect the changes to the high-level solutions strategy and migration plan.

C. You decide that in Phase E, the team review the Business Transformation Readiness Assessment and identify, classify, and mitigate the risks associated with the identified readiness factors. If the risks can be satisfactorily mitigated, then you would continue to define a high-level solutions strategy that includes the Transition Architectures needed to make the change culturally and technically feasible.

D. You decide that in Phase E, the team determines an approach to implementing an overall strategic direction that will address and mitigate the risks identified.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Scenario: Florian Flowers BV

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Florian Flowers BV is an international agricultural company exporting flowers and seeds worldwide. Florian is headquartered in Rotterdam in the Netherlands, and has sales and distribution centers in over 60 countries worldwide. Several of

these centers include administrative, manufacturing, and research facilities.

To achieve full integration of their research capabilities with their development centers located in various climate zones, Florian wants to develop strong self-directed teams in each location. Florian also wants to define new business models

that are profitable while reducing their impact on the environment. Florian management is deeply committed to ensuring that the company is a world leader in socially responsible seed development with a business strategy that focuses on

profitability through environmentally friendly operating processes.

Florians international operations are subject to various legal and regulatory requirements. In areas such as genetically modified seeds, governmental controls are strictly enforced and compliance is critical. Recently a competitor was heavily

fined for violating the regulations in a country where it was developing pest-resistant seeds.

The Governing Board is concerned, and as a result has approved the expenditure of resources to establish an Enterprise Architecture program. They have requested to be informed about the status of projects that could impact regulatory

compliance. They also want to enable the corporate legal staff and auditors to analyze proposed architectures to ensure that they are within the legal guidelines for a given location. In addition, the research organization should be able to see

that the architecture is appropriate for its needs.

TOGAF 9 has been mandated as the guiding framework for the development and evolution of the Enterprise Architecture practice.

Refer to the Florian Flowers BV Scenario

Florian management has engaged you as the Lead Consultant to assess the current situation.

You have been asked to recommend an approach that would enable the development of an architecture that addresses the needs of all these parties.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. Depending on the nature of the architecture, a set of models should be created that can be used to ensure that the system will be compliant with the local regulations. Stakeholders should be able to view the models to see that their concerns have been properly addressed.

B. Each architecture activity should be developed using a consistent modeling approach that is uniform across all architecture projects. Each architecture should be defined based on this fixed set of models so that all concerned parties can examine the models to ensure that their issues and concerns have been accessed.

C. For those groups that have sufficient power and level of interest, a special report should be created that summarizes the key features of the architecture with respect to the particular location. Each of these reports should reflect the stakeholders\’ requirements.

D. It would be beneficial to develop a stakeholder map that allows the architects to define groups of stakeholders that share common concerns. A set of views should be defined that addresses the concerns each group. Architecture models can then be created for each view to address the stakeholders\’ concerns.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Scenario: Zephyr Enterprises

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Zephyr Enterprises specializes in the development of wind turbine blades for use in large-scale commercial wind energy production systems. Zephyr has manufacturing facilities located in Palm Springs, California, Omaha, Nebraska, and Winnipeg, Ontario. Each of these plants supplies a different manufacturer that builds and sells complete systems. The turbine blades are custom engineered to meet each manufacturers design specifications.

Until recently, most turbine blades were fabricated manually using molded fiber-reinforced plastics. However, recent improvements in composite materials, coupled with enhanced automated methods for precision application of materials during the molding process, have led to significant reduction in weight, increase in strength, and greatly improved blade longevity. Zephyr has pioneered the development of a proprietary automated process for continuous extrusion of the turbine blades. Patents have been filed to protect the process, but certain trade secrets must be closely guarded.

Zephyr has a mature Enterprise Architecture organization that is supported by a cross-functional Architecture Review Board. The Chief Information Officer and the Chief Operating Officer co-sponsor the Enterprise Architecture program.

Zephyr has used TOGAF and its Architecture Development Method (ADM) to develop its automated manufacturing processes and systems that are used to design, manufacture, and test the blade assemblies. They have recently updated to

TOGAF 9 and have adapted the Zephyr Enterprise Architecture to closely follow the TOGAF 9 framework. All of Zephyrs IT architects have been trained and certified on TOGAF 9.Recently, an architecture project was completed that defined

a standard approach for controlling the Automated Test System that is used at each plant to perform final quality assurance tests on each completed blade assembly. The Manufacturing Architecture Board approved the plan for immediate

implementation at each plant.

An Architecture Contract was developed that detailed the work needed to implement and deploy the new Automated Test System controller. The Chief Engineer, sponsor of the activity, has expressed concern that a uniform process be

employed at each site to ensure consistency.

Refer to the Zephyr Enterprises Scenario:

You have been assigned by the Lead Architect for the Automated Test System controller project to conduct Compliance Assessments at each manufacturing plant.

During the course of the assessment at the Omaha plant, you discover that the Distributed Data Acquisition System they have purchased uses a proprietary Remote Procedure Call (RPC) that utilizes kernel mode threads instead of the user

mode threads that are specified in the Architecture Definition Document. In all other respects, the system meets the requirements stated in the Architecture Definition Document and seems to perform correctly.

You have been asked to describe the compliance of this system for the final report.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You observe that all of the features in the Architecture Definition Document have been implemented in accordance with the specification, except for the RPC mechanism. Your recommendation is that the system be described as conformant.

B. You observe that the system has many features in common with the Architecture Definition Document, and those features have been implemented in accordance with the specification. However, you note that the RPC mechanism has been implemented using features that are not covered by the specification. Your recommendation is that the system be described as consistent.

C. You observe that the implementation of the RPC mechanism has no features in common with the Architecture Definition Document, therefore the question of its conformance should not be considered. Your recommendation is that the system be described as consistent.

D. You observe that the system meets most of the requirements stated in the Architecture Definition Document and appears to work correctly. However, you note that the RPC mechanism has not been implemented according to the specification. Your recommendation is that the system be described as non-conformant.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Worldwide Mobile is a mobile telecommunications company formed through a series of mergers and acquisitions. They are yet to fully integrate the customer service systems for the most recent acquisitions, and as result, customer service has been a major concern for the Chief Technology Officer.

Results for the last two quarters have shown that Average Revenue Per User (ARPU) and the customer retention (Churn) rate have fallen below the industry average. The Corporate Marketing group has published some new finding about customer satisfaction. The customers appear to be switching to Air Light, a competitor, because of superior customer service. WorldwideMobile actually has better coverage in nearly all markets than Air Light, and good roaming agreement that keep rates low for business travellers. But customer satisfaction has remained low. The Business Strategy group and the Enterprise Architecture group have conducted a high-level project to develop the enterprise-wide strategic plan. They have developed a business scenario which contains a good conceptual model of what needs to be done and also identifies the key requirements. This was used in preparing the proposal presented to the Executive Council and the Corporate Board. The planning for the program has been underway for several months. WorldwideMobile has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture. The Corporate Board has approved funding for a multi-million Euro conversion to transition to a packaged Customer Service System. It is anticipated that the overall program will take five years to complete, but there are some tactical projects that can commence immediately to address the situation. The Executive Council has stated that the program should define specific initiatives to enable each regional business units to create an implementation of the Customer Service System. The implementation must meet the needs of the business unit and still provide the information needed to enable major improvements to the customer.

Refer to WorldwideMobile-2 Scenario

You are serving as the Lead Architect for the Performance and Integrity project of the Customer Service System program.

The project has been chartered to address the architecture(s) required to support the Customer Service System from an infrastructure perspective. At present time, the project team is conducting an architecture development project that is

focused on the customer self service capability, which was defined as part of the earlier strategic planning activities. This capability will enable customers to access their accounts, pay bills, request account reviews, and provision services

from any web-enabled device.

The project team has gathered information about the self-service capability, developed a business scenario, and used the results to define an Architecture Vision for achieving the capability.

You have been asked to recommend the course of action to complete the project.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is best answer?

A. In the remaining architecture definition phases, the project team should map out the capability in the Technology domain. In the Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of Solution Building Blocks that define the Target Architecture. Where possible, the Solution Building Blocks should be drawn from the Architecture Repository. The completed Architecture Definition Document and the Implementation and Migration Plan will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the architecture team will conduct Compliance Assessments to ensure that the Target Architecture is properly implemented.

B. In the remaining architecture definition phases, the project team should map out the capability across the Business, Information System and Technology domains. In the Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of increments that are sequenced into Transition Architectures that will lead to the realization of the Target Architecture. The resulting Solution Building Blocks will then provide the basis for the capability increment solutions. The complete Architecture Definition Document and the Implementation and Migration Plan will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the architecture team will oversee the implementation process through monitoring Architecture Contracts and by conduction Compliance Assessments.

C. In the remaining architecture definition phases, the project team should map out the capability across the Business, Information System and Technology domains. In the Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of increments that defines the Target Architecture. The Solution Building Blocks will provide the basis for the capability increment solutions. The complete Architecture Definition Document and the Implementation and Migration Plan will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the architecture team will oversee the implementation process through monitoring Architecture Contracts and by conducting Compliance Assessments.

D. The remaining architecture definition work should be focused on mapping out the technology and infrastructure capability in the Technology domain. In Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of Solution Building Blocks that will be implemented to realize the Target Architecture. The Solution Building Blocks will provide the basis for the completed Architecture Definition Document that will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the implementation team will conduct Compliance Assessments to ensure that the self-service capability is compliant with the overall Enterprise Architecture.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You have been appointed as a consultant to the Lead Enterprise Architect of an international agricultural company that exports bulbs, flowers and seeds worldwide. The company has its headquarters in the Netherlands, and has sales and

distribution centers in over 30 countries worldwide. Several of these centers include administrative, manufacturing, and research facilities.

To achieve full integration of their research capabilities with their development centers located in various climate zones, the company wants to develop strong self-directed teams in each location. It also wants to define new business models

that are profitable while reducing their impact on the environment. The management team is deeply committed to ensuring that the company is a world leader in socially responsible seed development with a business strategy that focuses on

profitability through environmentally friendly operating processes.

The international operations of the company are subject to legal and regulatory requirements for each country where they operate. The production of genetically modified seeds has governmental controls that are strictly enforced and

compliance is critical. Recently a competitor was heavily fined for violating the regulations in a country where it was developing pest-resistant seeds.

The Governing Board is concerned about the risks posed in this complex global environment, and as a result has approved the expenditure of resources to establish an Enterprise Architecture program. They have requested to be informed

about the status of projects that could impact regulatory compliance. They also want to enable the corporate legal staff and auditors to analyze proposed architectures to ensure that they are within the legal guidelines for a given location. In

addition, the research organization should be able to see that the architecture is appropriate for its needs.

TOGAF 9 has been mandated as the framework for the development and evolution of the Enterprise Architecture practice. The Preliminary Phase has been completed to establish the enterprise architecture capability for this project.

Refer to the Scenario

You have been asked to recommend an approach that would enable the development of an architecture that addresses the needs of the Governing Board, legal staff, auditors and the research organization.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You recommend that each project architecture activity is developed using a consistent modeling approach that is uniform across all architecture projects. Each architecture should be defined based on this fixed set of models so that all concerned parties can examine the models to ensure that their issues and concerns have been addressed.

B. You recommend that a special report be created for those groups that have sufficient power and level of interest. This report should summarize the key features of the architecture with respect to the particular location. Each of these reports should reflect the stakeholders1 requirements.

C. You recommend that a set of models be created for each project architecture that can be used to ensure that the system will be compliant with the local regulations. Stakeholders should then view the models to verify that their concerns have been properly addressed.

D. You recommend that a stakeholder map be developed. This will allow the architects to define groups of stakeholders that share common concerns. A set of views should be defined to address the concerns for each group of stakeholders. Architecture models should then be created for each view to address the stakeholders\’ concerns.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

You are the Lead Enterprise Architect in a company that specializes in the development of wind turbine blades for use in large-scale commercial wind energy production systems. The company has manufacturing facilities located in Illinois,

Nebraska, and Manitoba. Each of these plants supplies a different manufacturer that builds and sells complete systems. The turbine blades are custom engineered to meet each manufacturer\’s design specifications.

Until recently, most turbine blades were fabricated manually using molded fiber-reinforced plastics. However, recent improvements in composite materials, coupled with enhanced automated methods for precision application of materials

during the molding process, have led to significant reduction in weight, increase in strength, and improved blade longevity. The company has pioneered the development of a proprietary automated process for continuous extrusion of the

turbine blades. Patents have been filed to protect the process, but certain trade secrets must be closely guarded.

The company has a mature Enterprise Architecture organization that is supported by a cross-functional Architecture Board. The Chief Information Officer and the Chief Operating Officer co-sponsor the Enterprise Architecture program.

TOGAF 9 and its Architecture Development Method (ADM) are used to develop the automated manufacturing processes and systems that are used to design, manufacture, and test the blade assemblies.

Recently, a pilot architecture project was completed at a single location that defined a standard approach for controlling the Automated Test System that is used at each plant to perform final quality assurance tests on each completed blade

assembly. The Architecture Board approved the plan for immediate implementation at each plant.

Architecture Contracts have been developed that detail the work needed to implement and deploy the new Automated Test System controller for each location. The Chief Engineer, sponsor of the activity, has expressed concern that a uniform

process be employed at each location to ensure consistency.

Refer to the Scenario

You have been asked to recommend the best approach to address the Chief Engineer\’s concern.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You review the applicable Architecture Contract for each location, ensuring that it addresses the project objectives, effectiveness metrics, acceptance criteria, and risk management. In cases where the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a legally enforceable contract. You schedule compliance reviews at key points in the implementation process to ensure that the work is proceeding in accordance with the Architecture Definition. You ensure that the Architecture Board reviews all deviations from the Architecture Contract, and considers whether or not to grant a dispensation to allow the implementation organization to customize the process to meet their local needs.

B. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process at each location. For internal development projects, you issue a memorandum of understanding between the Architecture Board and the implementation organization. For contracts issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. You ensure that the Architecture Board reviews all deviations from the Architecture Contract, and considers whether or not to grant a dispensation to allow the implementation organization to customize the process to meet their local needs.

C. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process. If the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. For internal development projects, you decide it is adequate to utilize a memorandum of understanding between the Architecture Board and the implementation organization. You recommend that if a deviation from the Architecture Contract is detected, the Architecture Board grant a dispensation to allow the implementation organization the ability to customize the process to meet their local needs.

D. You use the issued Architecture Contracts to manage the architecture governance processes for the project across the locations. You deploy monitoring tools to assess the performance of the completed blade assembly at each location and develop change requirements if necessary. You recommend that if a deviation from the contract is detected, the Architecture Board should modify the Architecture Contract to allow the implementation organization the ability to customize the process to meet their local needs. As a result, you then issue a new Request for Architecture Work to implement the modified Architecture Definition.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect at a major supplier in the automotive industry. The company is headquartered in Cleveland, Ohio with manufacturing plants across the United States, Brazil, Germany, Japan and South Korea.

Each of these plants has been operating its own planning and production scheduling systems, as well as custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant.

The company is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was determined that a significant

reduction in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current planning and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the Cleveland data center. This central system would provide

support to each of the plants replacing the functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some

cases, a third-party contractor could provide those staff.

The Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature, well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF 9.

At a recent meeting, the Architecture Board approved a Request for Architecture Work sponsored by the Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations. The request covered the initial architectural investigations and the development of a

comprehensive architecture to plan the transformation.

The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some of the plant managers have

expressed concern about the security and reliability of diving their planning and production scheduling from a remote centralized system. The Chief Engineer wants to know how these concerns can be addressed.

Refer to the Scenario

[Note: You should assume that the company has adopted the example set of principles that are listed and defined in TOGAF 9, Section 23.6.] One of the earliest initiatives in the Enterprise Architecture program was the definition of a set of

architecture principles. These now need to be updated to address the concerns raised.

You have been asked to select a set of principles most appropriate for guiding the team to define a robust solution.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. Common-use Applications, Control Technical Diversity, Ease of Use, Interoperability, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data Security

B. Business Continuity, Common-use Applications, Maximize Benefit to the Enterprise, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data Security

C. Technology Independence, Data Trustee, Information Management is Everybody\’s Business, IT Responsibility, Responsive Change Management

D. Service-orientation, Responsive Change Management, Business Continuity, Data is Accessible, Data Security

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You have been assigned the role of Lead Enterprise Architect for a manufacturing firm that specializes in musical instruments. The firm has been established for over 100 years, operating in North America for most of that time. In the last ten

years, the firm has expanded into European markets and will soon establish a market in Latin America. A future expansion into the Asia Pacific region is also planned.

The firm is organized into several business units that each focus on manufacturing particular families of instruments such as brass, woodwind, and percussion. Each business unit has acquired other producers to expand its manufacturing capacity. This has resulted in a complex environment with a high diversity of business and manufacturing systems. The Enterprise Architecture (EA) program within the firm has been functioning for several years. It has made significant progress in consolidating the technology portfolio and establishing key standards. The CIO and the COO are pint sponsors of the EA program. The EA program is mature, with an active Architecture Board and a well-defined architecture process and standard content templates based on the TOGAF 9 Architecture Content Framework. The EA process framework is well coordinated with the PMO, Systems Development, and Operations functions.

The firm has completed a strategic plan to reorganize its Sales and Marketing organization according to the four target geographic markets. One of the goals of this reorganization is to improve the ability of Marketing to collect more meaningful

market analytics that will enable each sector to better address market needs with effective marketing campaigns and global product presence.

A Request for Architecture Work to address the goals of the reorganization has been approved. As the architecture team commences its work, the CIO has expressed concerns about whether the firm will be able to adapt to the proposed

architecture and how to manage the associated risks.

Refer to the Scenario

You have been asked how to address the concerns of the CIO.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. In Phase B, the team should create a set of views that will enable them to identify the factors that will influence the successful introduction of the architecture into the organization. There should then be an assessment of each factor on a maturity scale that will allow the team to gauge the urgency, readiness, and degree of difficulty to fix. These factors can then be used to assess the initial risks associated with the proposed architecture.

B. In Phase A the team should analyze their risk by completing an Implementation Factor Assessment and Deduction Matrix to identify the particular risks associated with the implementation and deployment. The matrix should include a list of factors to be considered, their descriptions, and constraints that should be taken into account. These factors can then used to assess the initial risks associated with the proposed architecture.

C. In Phase A, the team should use the Business Transformation Readiness Assessment technique to identify the factors that will influence the successful introduction of the architecture into the organization. The assessment should include determining the readiness rating for each factor based on a maturity scale that will allow the team to gauge the urgency, readiness, and degree of difficulty to fix. These factors can then used to assess the initial risks associated with the proposed architecture.

D. In Phase A, the team should conduct a Business Scenario to identify the stakeholders\’ concerns and the resulting retirements. Once the retirements have been identified, they can be assessed in terms of their risks. The risks should be evaluated in terms of how they could be avoided, transferred, or mitigated. Any risks that cannot be resolved should be identified as residual risks and their disposition should be decided by the Architecture Board.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You are the Lead Architect for a firm that manufactures ball bearings used in industrial equipment applications. They have manufacturing operations in several cities in the United States, Germany, and the United Kingdom. The firm has

traditionally allowed each manufacturing plant to drive its own production planning systems. Each plant has its own custom Materials Requirements Planning, Master Production Scheduling, Bill of Materials, and Shop Floor Control systems.

“Just In Time” manufacturing techniques are used to minimize wastes caused by excessive inventory and work in process. The increasingly competitive business environment has compelled the firm to improve its business capability to be

more responsive to the needs of industrial customers. To support this capability, the firm has decided to implement an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) solution that will enable it to better coordinate its manufacturing capacity to match the

demands for its products across all plants. In addition, there are also new European regulations coming into force to which their manufacturing processes must conform in the next six months.

As part of the implementation process, the Enterprise Architecture (EA) department has begun to implement an architecture process based on TOGAF 9. The CIO is the sponsor of the activity. The Chief Architect has directed that the

program should include formal modeling using the Architecture Content Framework and the TOGAF Content Metamodel. This will enable support for the architecture tooling that the firm uses for its EA program.

The Chief Architect has stated that in order to model the complex manufacturing process it will be necessary to model processes that are event-driven. Also, in order to consolidate applications across several data centers it will be necessary

to model the location of IT assets. In particular, the end goal is to have the single ERP application running in a single data center.

Currently the project is in the Preliminary Phase, and the architects are tailoring the Architecture Development Method (ADM) and Architecture Content Framework to fit into the corporate environment.

Refer to the Scenario

You have been asked to recommend a response to the Chief Architect\’s request to tailor the TOGAF Content Metamodel.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You recommend that the architecture team incorporate the Process Modeling and Infrastructure Consolidation extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. As the environment is process-centric this will enable them to model the manufacturing processes and store information to support regulatory compliance. It also includes views useful for managing the consolidation of applications into a single data center.

B. You recommend that the architecture team incorporate the Process Modeling and Governance extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. This is suitable as this is a significant IT change that will impact its operational models. This will ensure that they include specific entities and attributes that will allow them to model the event-driven nature of the manufacturing processes more precisely.

C. You recommend that the architecture team incorporates the Governance and Motivation Extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. This would allow modeling of the target milestones they want to achieve with this consolidation of application to a single data center. These extensions will also enable demonstration of regulatory compliance for the manufacturing process.

D. You recommend that the architecture team incorporates the Data and Services Extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. This would allow modeling of the location of IT assets and ensure regulatory compliance for the manufacturing process. It will also allow for identification of redundant duplication of capability which will be needed for a successful consolidation to a single data center.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect at a major supplier in the automotive industry. The company is headquartered in Cleveland, Ohio with manufacturing plants across the United States, Brazil, Germany, Japan and South Korea.

Each of these plants has been operating its own planning and production scheduling systems, as well as custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant.

The company is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was determined that a significant

reduction in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current planning and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the Cleveland data center. This central system would provide

support to each of the plants replacing the functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some

cases, a third-party contractor could provide those staff.

The Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature, well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF 9.

At a recent meeting, the Architecture Board approved a Request for Architecture Work sponsored by the Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations. The request covered the initial architectural investigations and the development of a

comprehensive architecture to plan the transformation.

The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some of the plant managers have

expressed concern about the security and reliability of diving their planning and production scheduling from a remote centralized system. The Chief Engineer wants to know how these concerns can be addressed.

Refer to the Scenario

During the initial meeting of the Common ERP Deployment architecture project team, a number of alternative recommendations for how to proceed are put forward by members of the team. You have been asked to select the most appropriate

recommendation to ensure that the team evaluates different approaches to the problem and clarifies the requirements for the architecture.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. The team should develop Baseline and Target Architectures for each of the manufacturing plants, ensuring that the views corresponding to selected viewpoints address key concerns of the stakeholders. A consolidated gap analysis between the architectures will then be used to validate the approach, and determine the capability increments needed to achieve the target state.

B. The team should exercise due diligence and carefully research vendor literature and conduct a series of briefings with vendors that are on the current approved supplier list. Based on the findings from the research, the team should define a preliminary Architecture Vision. The team should then use that model to build consensus among the key stakeholders.

C. The team should use stakeholder analysis to understand who has concerns about the initiative. The team should then hold a series of interviews at each of the manufacturing plants using the business scenario technique. This will then enable them to identify and document the key high-level stakeholder requirements for the architecture.

D. The team should conduct a pilot project that will enable vendors on the short list to demonstrate potential solutions that will address the concerns of the stakeholders. Based on the findings of that pilot project, a complete set of retirements will be developed that will drive the evolution of the architecture.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Scenario: Glacier Ridge LLC

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question Glacier Ridge LLC is a vacation property management firm that is growing through acquisition. It manages over 200 resort properties across North America. Many of the resort properties use the same internal IT systems that they used before they were acquired. Until recently, the only requirement that has been placed en each property is that they use a standard financial reporting system to report their financials ID the headquarters on a weekly basis. The CEO has stated his concerns about the inefficiencies of the current approach and identified the need to change. He has defined a new strategic vision that will enhance the Glacier Ridge property business by standardizing its operations across the network to provide consolidated financial, human resources, logistics, sales and marketing, and yield management. He has also stated that he expects results by the end of the current fiscal year. These changes will provide the company with improved utilization of its capacity and more efficient operations. The addition of a corporate-wide data warehouse will provide analytics that will enable the marketing group to improve its ability to target advertising into key markets to improve yields. Glacier Ridge has mature enterprise architecture (EA) practice and uses TOGAF 9 as the method and guiding framework.

The CIO is the sponsor of the activity. In planning this change, the Chief Architect engaged the services of a well-known consulting firm that specializes in business strategy. An initial study has been conducted to identify the strategic changes needed to implement the CEO\’s vision. This recently completed with approval of a strategic architecture encompassing the entire firm, including detailed requirements and recommendations.

Based on the recommendations from the initial engagement, Glacier Ridge has embraced an Architecture Vision to adopt an enterprise application that is tailored to the needs of the hospitality industry.

Refer to the Glacier Ridge scenario Your role is that of Chief Architect. You have been asked to recommend the best approach to take in this architecture engagement to realize the CEO\’s vision. Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. Since the initial engagement has identified the need to change, you recommend that the team focus on defining the target architecture by going through the architecture definition phases (B-D). This will ensure that the change can be defined in a structured manner and address the requirements needed to realize the vision.

B. Since the vision is well understood and the strategic architecture agreed, you recommend that the target architecture is defined first, followed by transition planning. This will ensure that the current inefficiencies of the baseline architecture are not carried forward, and that the proposed solution addresses the requirements identified in the initial architecture engagement.

C. You recommend that this engagement define the Technology Architecture first in order to assess the current infrastructure capacity and capability. Then the focus should be on transition planning and architecture deployment. This will identify requirements to ensure that the projects are sequenced in an optimal fashion so as to realize the vision.

D. You recommend that the team focus on architecture definition, with a specific emphasis on understanding the strategic change parameters of the business strategy. Once understood, the team will be in the best position to identify the requirements, drivers, issues, and constraints for this engagement. You would ensure that the target architecture addresses non-functional requirements so as to help forecast future impacts.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Scenario: Sollace Manufacturing Please read this scenario prior to answering the question Sollace Manufacturing is a major supplier in the automotive industry, headquartered In Cleveland, Ohio with manufacturing plants in Chicago, Sao Paulo, Stuttgart, Yokohama, and Seoul. Each of these plants has been operating its own planning and production scheduling systems, as well as custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant. Sollace Manufacturing is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was determined that a significant reduction in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current planning and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the Cleveland data center. This central system would provide support to each of the plants replacing the functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some cases, a third-party contractor could provide those staff. The Sollace Manufacturing Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature, well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF 9. At a recent meeting, the Architecture Review Board approved a Request for Architecture Work from the Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations who is the project sponsor. The request covered the initial architectural investigations and the development of a comprehensive architecture to plan the transformation. The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some of the plant managers have expressed concern about the security and reliability of driving their planning and production scheduling from a central system located in Cleveland. The Chief Engineer wants to know how these concerns can be addressed.

Refer to the Sollace Manufacturing Scenario You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect for the Common ERP Deployment architecture project. One of the earliest initiatives in the Enterprise Architecture program at Sollace Manufacturing was the definition of a set of IT principles and architecture principles that are well aligned with the overall enterprise principles. These now need to be updated to address the concerns raised.

You have been asked to select a set of principles most appropriate for guiding the team to define a robust solution. [Note: You should assume that Sollace Manufacturing has adopted the example set of principles that are listed and defined in TOGAF 9, Section 23.6.] Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. Common-use Applications, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data Security, Interoperability, Control Technical Diversity

B. Business Continuity, Service-orientation, Data is Accessible, Data Security, Responsive Change Management

C. Maximize Benefit to the Enterprise, Business Continuity, Common-use Applications, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data Security

D. Information Management is Everybody\’s Business, IT Responsibility, Data Trustee, Technology Independence, Responsive Change Management

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Scenario: MegaMart

Case Study Title (Case Study):

MegaMart is a Retail Chain which has expanded throughout India and the Far East.

The CEO and CIO decide that there is a crying need to put an Enterprise Architecture in place to realize MegaMart\’s strategy to expand its revenue and diversify. The CIO has evaluated and decided to go in for TOGAF9 and adapt it to his

enterprise requirements.

The Preliminary and Vision Phase have been completed.

As such very few architectural artifacts exist and the target architecture as of now is not very clear. As the Lead Architect how would you guide your team of architects for the Business Architecture definition?

A. In the first iteration start with the definition of the Target Business Architecture using a Top down Approach. Then keep on iterating in Phase B till the Target Business Architecture is refined before going to Phase C and Phase D. After Phase C and Phase D are over, iterate again to Phase B and define the baseline Business Architecture, analyze the gaps finalize the Architecture Definitions documents and proceed to Phase C and Phase D.

B. In the first iteration start with the definition of the Baseline Business Architecture using a Top Down approach. Define the Architecture Definition document after analyzing the impacts and reviewing with the stakeholders. Then proceed to Phase C and Phase D. In the next iteration finalize the Target Business Architecture and proceed to Phase C and Phase D.

C. In the first iteration start with the definition of the Baseline Business Architecture using a Bottom Up approach. Define the Architecture Definition document after analyzing the impacts and reviewing with the stakeholders\’. Proceed to Phase C and Phase D. In the next iteration finalize the Target Business Architecture, determine the gaps and the roadmap, and the impact and update the Architecture Definition document. after analyzing the impacts and reviewing with the stakeholders. Then proceed with the iteration.

D. In the first iteration start with the definition of the Target Business Architecture using a Top Down approach. Define the Architecture Definition document after analyzing the impacts and reviewing with the stakeholders proceed to Phase C and Phase D. In the next iteration finalize the Baseline Business Architecture, determine the gaps and the roadmap, and the impact and update the Architecture Definition document. After analyzing the impacts and reviewing with the stakeholders. Then proceed with the iteration.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

A project manager is attempting to establish the proper sequencing and duration of project activities. Which of the following would be the MOST beneficial?

A. Network diagram

B. Ishikawa diagram

C. WBS

D. Gantt chart

Correct Answer: A

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 160


Question 2:

Which of the following are characteristics of a project? (Choose two.)

A. Ongoing

B. Temporary

C. Start and finish

D. Achieving a goal

E. Consisting of milestones

F. Restricting the budget

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 27


Question 3:

A company has determined it does not have the in-house capability to perform a project and wants to procure third-party services.

Which of the following documents will the company MOST likely release FIRST?

A. RFO

B. RFI

C. RFP

D. RFQ

Correct Answer: B

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 300


Question 4:

The project manager was asked to provide recommendations for the removal of a vendor. A meeting was scheduled with the key stakeholders and the project sponsor to highlight the reasons for this recommendation.

Which of the following should the project manager bring to the meeting to support this recommendation? (Choose two.)

A. The issue log to show why the vendor should be replaced.

B. The team action items to show why the vendor should be replaced.

C. The scope statement to show why the vendor should be replaced.

D. A procurement plan to show why the vendor should be replaced.

E. A change management plan to have the vendor replaced.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 291,

p. 327


Question 5:

A project manager is creating the WBS.

In which of the following phases is the project?

A. Initiation

B. Planning

C. Execution

D. Closing

Correct Answer: B

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 139


Question 6:

Which of the following is a characteristics of a matrix organization?

A. Authority lies solely with the project manager.

B. Authority is directed by the project architect.

C. Authority is shared between the project manager and project coordinator.

D. Authority is shared between functional and project managers.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 56


Question 7:

A WBS is being developed for a project.

Which of the following would be BEST suited to contribute cost and time estimates for the project activities?

A. Project team members

B. Project sponsor

C. Project manager

D. Project scheduler

Correct Answer: B

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 82


Question 8:

A project manager is assigned to a project and has not had a handover meeting with the previous project manager. The new project manager is reviewing the percent of project completion, schedule progress, and budget constraints.

Which of the following documents should the project manager use to obtain this information?

A. Project schedule

B. Balanced scorecard

C. Issue log

D. Status report

Correct Answer: D

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 328


Question 9:

A stakeholder is unaware of a project\’s status.

Which of the following documents should the project manager consult to ensure all stakeholders are notified of project changes? (Choose two.)

A. Status report

B. Organizational chart

C. RACI matrix

D. Meeting minutes

E. Communication plan

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 261


Question 10:

A project requires daily status updates.

Which of the following is the MOST effective method for providing these updates?

A. Backlog

B. Standup

C. Kickoff

D. Retrospective

Correct Answer: B

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 306


Question 11:

A project sponsor and Chief Information Officer (CIO) disagree about how to release the final deliverables to the market. The sponsor wants to do a massive product release, while the CIO wants to be extremely cautious and add more time for testing and defect resolution. The project manager works with both parties and determines the best solution is to roll the product out in a pilot release to see how it tests, and then use customer feedback to determine next steps.

Which of the following conflict resolution techniques is the project manager using?

A. Forcing

B. Negotiating

C. Compromising

D. Avoiding

Correct Answer: B

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 200


Question 12:

A project manager is justifying a required change with the associated impact on the project.

Which of the following is the NEXT step?

A. Implementation

B. Approval

C. Validation

D. Auditing

Correct Answer: B

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 294


Question 13:

The PMO is responsible for: (Choose two.)

A. managing the project plan, scope, risk, and budget.

B. contributing expertise, deliverables, and estimates of costs.

C. setting standards and practices for the organization and providing governance.

D. outlining consequences of non-performance and coordinating between disparate projects.

E. approving funding, developing the project schedule, and gathering high-level requirements.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 85


Question 14:

A critical stakeholder has requested additional status updated beyond the schedule.

Which of the following factors MOST likely needs to be accounted for when communication with this stakeholder?

A. Confidentiality

B. Criticality

C. Frequency

D. Cultural differences

Correct Answer: C

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 265


Question 15:

Which of the following activities are associated with the closing phase of a project? (Choose two.)

A. Risk mitigation

B. Archiving of project documents

C. Tracking of expenditures

D. Lessons learned

E. Quality assurance

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: Kim Heldman, CompTIA Project Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2017, p. 338,


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Question 1:

You can enter and view dates in any valid format in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. You can also enter and view numbers with either the period (full stop) character or comma as the decimal separator. Regardless of the various formats that can be used to enter dates and numbers, the actual values are stored in the database in the _____.

A. UTF8 format

B. ASCII format

C. US7ASCII character set

D. Standard number format

E. Uniform canonical format

Correct Answer: E


Question 2:

Identify three features of Key Flexfields. (Choose three.)

A. Key Flexfields are used as identifiers for entities.

B. The Key Flexfield structure comprises Segments.

C. A Key Flexfield structure consists of multiple code combinations.

D. Key Flexfields appear as a single-space field enclosed in brackets.

E. Each segment of a Key Flexfield usually contains meaningful information.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 3:

Select four required attributes when defining a Ledger in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. (Choose four.)

A. Calendar

B. Currency

C. Legal Entity

D. Business Group

E. Chart of Accounts

F. Accounting Convention

Correct Answer: ABEF


Question 4:

The APPL_TOP directory in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 contains _____.

A. redo log files

B. database files

C. data tablespaces

D. index tablespaces

E. the system tablespace

F. the product directories and files for Oracle Applications

Correct Answer: F


Question 5:

Which business flow is used for activities starting from product purchase to creating and closing service requests?

A. Click to Order

B. Campaign to Order

C. Contract to Renewal

D. Request to Resolution

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

ABC Corp. has implemented Oracle Manufacturing applications from Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. How is the data in the manufacturing applications partitioned?

A. by Application

B. by Legal Entity

C. by Operating Unit

D. by Business Group

E. by Inventory Organization

Correct Answer: E


Question 7:

What are the three elements involved in submitting a concurrent request? (Choose three.)

A. selecting Operating Unit

B. selecting report language

C. providing completion option

D. defining a submission schedule

E. selecting the request or request set to be submitted

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 8:

Application Security consists of User, Responsibility, and Self-Service Application Security. Select three authorizations to which a responsibility allows access. (Choose three.)

A. Ledger

B. Legal Entity

C. Business Groups

D. a specific application or applications

E. a restricted list of windows, functions, and reports

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 9:

Identify two features related to parameters in a Daily Business Intelligence report. (Choose two.)

A. Parameters are based on responsibilities.

B. Each page in a report contains common parameters.

C. Parameters can be defined for individual regions of a report.

D. Multiple primary dimension parameters can be associated with a page in a report.

E. The primary dimension parameter is different for each page in a Daily Business Intelligence report.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 10:

Which two statements are true regarding partitioning of data by an application? (Choose two.)

A. General Ledger is partitioned by Ledgers.

B. Accounts Payable is partitioned by Ledgers.

C. Fixed Assets are partitioned by Operating Unit.

D. Accounts Receivable is partitioned by Operating Unit.

E. Order Management is partitioned by Inventory Organization.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 11:

Identify three features of Multi-Org. (Choose three.)

A. The data can be logically partitioned.

B. Users can be assigned to specific organizations.

C. It defines organizations and the relationships between them.

D. Multiple installations of Oracle Applications products are needed.

E. It enables at most two business units to use a single installation of Oracle Applications.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 12:

Identify four components of the Fusion Business Intelligence Embedded Dashboard. (Choose four.)

A. real-time chat link

B. multiple currencies

C. flexible time periods

D. multiple data widgets

E. Web conferencing link

F. Key Performance Indicators

Correct Answer: BCDF


Question 13:

Identify three Fusion Business Intelligence products for Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. (Choose three.)

A. Oracle CRM Analytics

B. Oracle Sales Analytics

C. Oracle Treasury Analytics

D. Oracle Financial Analytics

E. Oracle Commodity Analytics

F. Oracle Supply Chain Analytics

Correct Answer: BDF


Question 14:

Which two statements are true about the features of Daily Business Intelligence? (Choose two.)

A. Key Performance Indicators cannot be disabled.

B. The data that has changed since the last refresh is updated.

C. Parameters regulate user access to content and functionality.

D. Incremental refresh capabilities of Oracle Database are leveraged.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 15:

Identify three features of a Value Set. (Choose three.)

A. Value Sets are mandatory.

B. Value Sets must contain a list of values.

C. Value Sets control the values for many report parameters.

D. The same Value Set can be shared between different Flexfields.

E. A Value Set is a definition of the values approved for entry by a particular Flexfield Segment.

Correct Answer: CDE


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Question 1:

If the Applied To scope is set to Distributed Firewall, which virtual machines will have the firewall rule applied?

A. Only the virtual machines defined in the Source field.

B. Only virtual machines defined in the Destination field.

C. All virtual machines in a Datacenter.

D. All virtual machines on prepared hosts.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

Which is required to support unicast mode in NSX?

A. Hardware VTEP

B. Distributed Logical Router

C. NSX Controller

D. NSX Edge

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which three changes to a distributed switch configuration could trigger a rollback? (Choose three.)

A. Blocking all ports in the distributed port group containing the management VMkernel network adapter.

B. Configure the virtual machine system traffic to enable bandwidth allocation using Network I/O Control.

C. Adding a new host with a previous vDS configuration.

D. Changing the MTU.

E. Changing the VLAN settings in the distributed port group of the management VMkernel adapter.

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 4:

When designing a multi-site NSX deployment, which capability requires Enhanced Linked Mode to function?

A. Creating Universal Transport Zones

B. Creating Universal Logical Switches

C. Cross-vCenter vMotion

D. Registering a Secondary NSX Manager

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

An NSX Administrator is examining a broken set of firewall rules and discovers that the Block Telnet rule was created in the wrong section.

Based on the exhibit, which option would correct the issue with the least amount of effort?

A. Use the Merge Section functionality to correct this.

B. Use the Move rule Up icon to move rules between sections.

C. Add a new rule called Block Telnet to the correct section and then remove the existing rule.

D. Delete the rule and then re-add the rule to the correct section.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What is required before running an Activity Monitoring report?

A. Enable data collection on the NSX Controller.

B. Enable data collection on the vCenter Server.

C. Enable data collection on the NSX Manager.

D. Enable data collection on the virtual machine.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

What is the minimum NSX role necessary for a user to edit the firewall on an Edge Services Gateway (ESG)?

A. Auditor

B. NSX Administrator

C. Enterprise Administrator

D. Security Administrator

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

When specifying a source for a security rule, what is the purpose of the Negate Source check box?

A. If Negate Source is selected, the rule is sent to only the objects identified under object type.

B. If Negate Source is selected, the rule is applied to traffic coming from all sources except for the source identified under the object type.

C. If Negate Source is not selected, the rule is applied to traffic coming from all sources except for the source identified under the object type.

D. if Negate Source is not selected, the rule is sent to only the objects identified under the object type.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

In a vSphere Distributed Switch architecture, which plane handles packet switching?

A. Data Plane

B. Forwarding Plane

C. Management Plane

D. Control Plane

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

A new ESXi host was added to an existing cluster, prepared for NSX and enabled for Distributed Firewall, logical switching and Logical Routing. The Host Preparation page in the NSX Web UI shows this new host is in Ready state and the Logical Network Preparation tab displays the VXLAN VTEPs are correctly configured. Virtual machines on the new host can communicate with each other but CANNOT communicate with VMs running on other hosts and connected to the same Logical Switch. Which condition below will result in the described behavior on the new host?

A. NSX Edge is powered off

B. Host Agent (vpxa) to vCenter is disconnected

C. Rabbitmq message bus connection (vsfwd) to NSX Manager is down

D. Network Control Plane Agent (netcpa) connection to the controller is down

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

What is the best practice workflow for a NSX installation to support logical switching?

A. Deploy NSX Manager, Configure Logical Switches, Register with vCenter, Deploy Controllers. Prepare hosts

B. Deploy NSX Manager, Deploy Controllers, Configure Logical Switches, Register with vCenter, Prepare hosts

C. Deploy NSX Manager, Register with vCenter, Prepare hosts, Deploy Controllers, Configure Logical Switches

D. Deploy NSX Manager, Register with vCenter, Deploy Controllers, Prepare hosts, Configure Logical Switches

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

What is the most restrictive NSX role that can be used to create and publish security policies and install virtual appliances?

A. Security Administrator

B. NSX Administrator

C. Auditor

D. Enterprise Administrator

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which three options are true about NSX logical bridges? (Choose three.)

A. A logical bridge configured for HA uses a 15 second heartbeat by default to detect failure.

B. A logical bridge configured for HA uses (BFD) Bi-Directional Forwarding to detect a failure in a minimum of one second.

C. A logical bridge on the DLR supports VXLAN to VLAN bridging.

D. A logical bridge forwards traffic through the control VM.

E. A logical bridge forwards traffic through the hypervisor.

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 14:

Which two networking and security components are contained in the backup configuration data of an NSX Manager backup file? (Choose two.)

A. vSphere Distributed Switch

B. Resource Pools

C. Edge Services Gateway

D. Grouping Objects

Correct Answer: CD


Question 15:

Two virtual machines are unable to communicate with one another. The virtual machines are in the same distributed portgroup, but reside on different ESXi hosts. What are two possible causes for the communications issue? (Choose two.)

A. Basic multicast filtering mode has been disabled on the ESXi hosts.

B. No physical NICs are assigned as active or standby uplinks in a NIC team.

C. The standby links are configured on different VLANs, preventing heartbeats from reaching each VM.

D. The physical NICs assigned as active or standby uplinks reside on different VLANs on the physical switch.

Correct Answer: BD


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Question 1:

A user realizes after rebooting his Mac that the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) daemon has not started. Which daemon should the user start?

A. IEM Client

B. BES Client

C. BES Agent

D. BES Plug-in

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which option in the Tools menu creates a computer group with dynamic membership?

A. Create New Static Computer Group

B. Create New Manual Computer Group

C. Create New Dynamic Computer Group

D. Create New Automatic Computer Group

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://www.scom2k7.com/dynamic-computer-groups-that-send-heartbeat-alerts/


Question 3:

Which content domain contains content related to virtualization platform management, using the automation engine, and middleware content?

A. Server Automation

B. Systems Lifecycle

C. Security Configuration

D. Mobile Device Management

Correct Answer: A

Reference: http://www-03.ibm.com/certify/tests/objC2010-508.shtml


Question 4:

An operator just received an analysis in .bes format and would like to test the content. How can the analysis be imported into the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console for testing?

A. Only Fixlets and tasks can be imported into I EM, not analyses.

B. In the I EM console select the Analyses node, right-click and select Import. The analysis will be activated automatically when it is imported.

C. Double-click the .bes file, select the appropriate Site and Domain, and click OK to save. The analysis will be activated automatically when it is imported.

D. In the I EM console, All Content Domain, Fixlets and Tasks node: right-click the .bes files to import. The analysis will be activated automatically when it is imported.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A user has recently deployed an action to a group of endpoints that she currently manages. All of these machines are reporting Locked in their Last Reported Status of the action. What does this mean?

A. No one is currently logged into the computer

B. The action constraints have been locked by another operator.

C. The endpoint manager client is locked and cannot run the action.

D. The user no longer has the right to manage this group of machines.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

When adding a Fixlet or task to a baseline, which option is used automatically as the action?

A. Action 1

B. Quick Action

C. Default Action

D. No action is used automatically.

Correct Answer: C

Both Fixlets and Tasks might have a Default Action, allowing you to simply click from the list to deploy it. They can both be grouped into Baselines, allowing higher levels of automation. If you create a Baseline of Fixlets or Tasks which all

contain default Actions, you can turn the tedious chores of maintaining a corporate policy or common operating environment into a single-click operation.

Reference:

http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/tivihelp/v26r1/index.jsp?topic=/com.ibm.tem.doc_8.2 /Platform/Console/c_introducing_fixlets_and_tasks.html


Question 7:

Which two statements are true regarding an IBM Endpoint Manager relay?

A. It passes content to the endpoints.

B. It collects responses from the endpoints.

C. It can only be installed on a Windows system.

D. It requires a local database (MS SQL or IBM DB2).

E. lt serves as a filter to restrict data passing to an endpoint.

Correct Answer: AB

Reference:

https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/community/wikis/home?lang=en#!/wiki/Tivoli End point Manager/page/Configuration Settings


Question 8:

While testing some custom content a user wants to restart the client on their Windows system to force the client to sync up. Which service should they restart?

A. BES Client

B. BES Agent

C. BES Plug-in

D. BES Endpoint

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

How can a custom Fixlet are created which locks the constraints and makes other operators unable to alter them?

A. On the Properties tab of the Create Fixlet dialog, lock the action constraints beforehand.

B. On the Actions tab of the Create Fixlet dialog, click on the Include Action settings locks.

C. On the Relevance tab of the Create Fixlet dialog, click on the Pre-define Action constraints.

D. On the Actions tab of the Create Fixlet dialog, select Lock Constraints from the Script Type dropdown.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which statement is true regarding a Fixlet?

A. A Fixlet is a template that does not have success criteria.

B. A Fixlet is a template that contains the binaries for patching an endpoint.

C. A Fixlet is a template containing only an action script that can make a change to an endpoint or its client settings.

D. A Fixlet is a template containing applicability relevance and an action script used to correct issues on an endpoint such as installing a patch.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

What is a benefit of a manual group over an automatic group?

A. Automatic groups are only visible to the user who created them.

B. Automatic groups can only be used for patching operating systems.

C. Manual groups can be used as a target for actions: automatic groups cannot.

D. Manual groups only contain systems that are added to them, guaranteeing a system is not targeted by accident.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

What is the purpose of the Refresh Console button in the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console?

A. To ensure the IEM console version is current.

B. To reload the console data from the local cache.

C. To reload the local cache data from the BES Enterprise database.

D. To send UDP broadcast messages to IEM agents and send a report back to the relay.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

An operator who can create custom content has been given access to a variety of sites including Patches for Windows (English) and Windows QA, a custom site for testing patches. Four months ago she created a baseline that included 130 updates and published it into the Windows QA site. She needs to deploy this baseline to 100 computers that recently came online. She notices that many of the Windows patches in the baseline are out of date because she see the message: Source Fixlet differs.

What does the operator need to do to correct this issue?

A. Recreate the entire baseline from scratch.

B. Use the Sync All Components button in the baseline.

C. Split the patches into two baselines; a baseline cannot be created that has 130 Fixlets.

D. Remove the Fixlets from the baseline that have the message – Source Fixlet differs; they have been discontinued by Microsoft.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

A simple script requires a one-time deployment against an operator\’s managed endpoints. Without creating a Fixlet or task, how would the operator take action in the IBM Endpoint Manager console?

A. click Tools > Single Action

B. click Tools > Take Custom Action

C. double-click an action taken previously and edit the Action Script

D. right-click on the computers being targeted and select Take Action

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/community/wikis/home?lang=en#!/wiki/Tivoli End point Manager/page/BigFix Actions


Question 15:

A new patch from Microsoft has been made available, and the security group has requested a list of vulnerable systems. How can a list of systems efficiently be retrieved from the IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) console?

A. Review the Windows Vulnerability analysis to provide a detailed list of applicable computers.

B. In the Computers list select each computer and record the systems that are relevant to the patch.

C. In the Fixlets and Tasks list select the Fixlet/Task, go to the Applicable Computers tab. and record the systems that are relevant to the patch.

D. In the Vulnerable Systems list, select the Fixlet/Task, go to the Applicable Computers tab. and record the systems that are relevant to the patch.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

To investigate a problem on a VxRail system, the onsite engineer has to collect the complete set of logs.

Which method will collect all logs at once?

A. Download https://:443/appliance /support-bundle

B. Export vCenter system logs

C. Run/mystic/generateFullLogBundlecommand in VxRail Manager CLI

D. Click “Generate New Log Bundle” in the VxRail Manager GUI

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

What is the VxRail maximum cluster size if using only 1 GbE links?

A. 8

B. 16

C. 32

D. 64 with an RPQ

Correct Answer: A

https://www.emc.com/collateral/specification-sheet/vxrail-4.0-spec-sheet.pdf


Question 3:

A workstation is being configured on the management VLAN (10.150.140.0/24) to connect to VxRail Manager for first time deployment.

Configuring which IP addresses on the workstation will result in a successful deployment without having to change them during initialization?

A. 192.168.1.199 and 10.150.140.100

B. 192.168.1.250 and 10.150.140.255

C. 192.168.10.199 and 10.150.140.255

D. 192.168.10.250 and 10.150.140.250

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

What is a requirement for the Top of Rack (ToR) switches used in a VxRail implementation?

A. MLD Querier

B. EtherChannel

C. IPV4 and IPV6 Multicast

D. LACP

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What is a consideration for using link aggregation on the Top of Rack (ToR) switch for a VxRail?

A. Should not be used for VxRail node ports, but can be used for uplink and ISL

B. Is not supported on the VxRail ToR switch

C. Can be configured for any connectivity, but are not required

D. Should always be configured for VxRail node ports to allow for failover

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

You are attempting to reset a single G Series node running 4.0.x code to the factory default. You discover that the configbundle.tgz file is corrupt.

What is the recommended method to recover the node?

A. Rapid Appliance Self Recovery

B. Node Replacement

C. Mobile Build Server

D. Reset Script

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

When using the RASR method to reset a VxRail node, which boot device is selected?

A. RASRUSB

B. SATADOM

C. IDRAC SD CARD

D. IDSDM

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

A company has a simple, 4 node VxRail cluster. The VxRail is running version 3.5 and utilizes a vSphere standard license. The company has asked for a VxRail software upgrade.

What are the steps for the upgrade?

A. Log in to VxRail Manager, select “Internet Upgrade”, then follow the prompts.

B. Log in to support.emc.com and download the upgrade packages.Next, open VxRail Manager, select “Off-line Upgrade”, then follow the prompts.

C. Place all four nodes into maintenance mode.Next, log in to VxRail Manager, select “Internet Upgrade”, then follow the prompts.

D. Contact Dell EMC support to request the upgrade to the VxRail cluster.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

You have been asked to deploy a single, 4 node VxRail cluster for company. They would like to migrate from their existing vSphere 6.5 environment. They have also asked that vCenter Enhanced linked-mode be supported. Based on best practice, what is the recommended deployment model?

A. Use existing vCenter 6.5 with Embedded PSC

B. Deploy Internal vCenter with External PSC

C. Deploy Internal vCenter with Embedded PSC

D. Use existing vCenter 6.5 with External PSC

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

A VxRail deployment has just been completed, and the performance service is enabled, but the vSAN performance statistics are not available for the cluster or virtual machines. What is the reason for this situation?

A. vSAN performance hot-fix has not been applied

B. Monitoring policy has not been created

C. Performance service has not been manually enabled

D. Data has not been populated

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

You are asked to cable up a VxRail G Series cluster to a redundant pair of 1/10G switches. What is the cabling best practice for this configuration?

A. Cable ports 1 and 2 to oneswitch. Cable ports 3 and 4 to the other switch.

B. Cable ports 1 and 2 to one switch. Cable ports 3 and 4 to the other switch. Cable BMC from node 1 and 2 to one switch. Cable BMC from node 3 and 4 to the other switch.

C. Cable ports 1 and 3 to one switch. Cable ports 2 and 4 to the other switch.

D. Cable ports 1 and 3 to one switch. Cable ports 2 and 4 to the other switch. Cable BMC from node 1 and 3 to one switch. Cable BMC from node 2 and 4 to the other switch.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

After initial installation the vSAN health check is reporting issues. Which action needs to be taken to correct the vSAN health check error?

A. Upgrade to the latest version of VxRail.

B. Upgrade to the latest driver version.

C. Reset error message to green.

D. Update HCL database and run health check.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which requirement is optional for a VxRail Stretched Cluster?

A. Enterprise Plus vSphere Licensing

B. External vCenter

C. IPv6 Multicast between locations

D. Cross-site layer-2 connectivity

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

A company wants to deploy VxRail on V Series nodes as a proof-of-concept (POC). Only one Top of Rack (ToR) switch has been provided for the POC.

What is the Dell EMC best practice recommendation in this situation?

A. Connect the first host NIC to the ToR switch. Leave the second host NIC un-cabled.

B. Connect each host NIC to a port on a different switch packet buffer bank on the ToRswitch. Balance the ports across two packet buffer banks.

C. Inform the company that the POC cannot proceed without a second ToR switch.

D. Connect the first host NIC to the TOR switch. Daisy chain the second NIC between hosts.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which VxRail Manager tab is used to set up the EMC Online Support Account and ESRS?

A. HEALTH

B. SUPPORT

C. DASHBOARD

D. CONFIG

Correct Answer: B

https://learningcontent.emc.com/gatekeepercontent/cninv000000000136183/stor y_content/external_files/VxRail Lab Guide-Admin and Management4.0- v2_ID.pdf


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Question 1:

You have installed antivirus software and you want to be sure that your AV signatures are working correctly. You don\’t want to risk the deliberate introduction of a live virus to test the AV software. You would like to write a harmless test virus, which is based on the European Institute for Computer Antivirus Research format that can be detected by the AV software.

How should you proceed?

A. Type the following code in notepad and save the file as SAMPLEVIRUS.COM. Your antivirus program springs into action whenever you attempt to open, run or copy it.X5O!P %@AP[4\PZX54(P^)7CC)7}$SAMPLEVIRUS-STANDARDANTIVIRUS-TEST-FILE!$H H*

B. Type the following code in notepad and save the file as AVFILE.COM. Your antivirus program springs into action whenever you attempt to open, run or copy it.X5O!P %@AP[4\PZX54(P^)7CC)7}$AVFILE-STANDARD-ANTIVIRUS-TESTFILE!$H H*

C. Type the following code in notepad and save the file as TESTAV.COM. Your antivirus program springs into action whenever you attempt to open, run or copy it.X5O!P %@AP[4\PZX54(P^)7CC)7}$TESTAV-STANDARD-ANTIVIRUSTEST-FILE!$H H*

D. Type the following code in notepad and save the file as EICAR.COM. Your antivirus program springs into action whenever you attempt to open, run or copy it.X5O!P %@AP[4\PZX54(P^)7CC)7}$EICAR-STANDARD-ANTIVIRUS-TESTFILE!$H H*

Correct Answer: D

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Question 2:

Marshall is the information security manager for his company. Marshall was just hired on two months ago after the last information security manager retired. Since the last manager did not implement or even write IT policies, Marshall has begun writing IT security policies to cover every conceivable aspect. Marshall\’s supervisor has informed him that while most employees will be under one set of policies, ten other employees will be under another since they work on computers in publicly- accessible areas. Per his supervisor, Marshall has written two sets of policies. For the users working on publicly-accessible computers, their policies state that everything is forbidden. They are not allowed to browse the Internet or even use email. The only thing they can use is their work related applications like Word and Excel.

What types of policies has Marshall written for the users working on computers in the publicly- accessible areas?

A. He has implemented Permissive policies for the users working on public computers

B. These types of policies would be considered Promiscuous policies

C. He has written Paranoid policies for these users in public areas

D. Marshall has created Prudent policies for the computer users in publicly-accessible areas

Correct Answer: C

It says that everything is forbidden, this means that there is a Paranoid Policy implemented


Question 3:

Bob was frustrated with his competitor, Brownies Inc., and decided to launch an attack that would result in serious financial losses. He planned the attack carefully and carried out the attack at the appropriate moment. Meanwhile, Trent, an administrator at Brownies Inc., realized that their main financial transaction server had been attacked. As a result of the attack, the server crashed and Trent needed to reboot the system, as no one was able to access the resources of the company. This process involves human interaction to fix it. What kind of Denial of Service attack was best illustrated in the scenario above?

A. DOS attacks which involves flooding a network or system

B. DOS attacks which involves crashing a network or system

C. DOS attacks which is done accidentally or deliberately

D. Simple DDOS attack

Correct Answer: B

This is not a DDOS, there is only one person involved as attacker


Question 4:

Attacker forges a TCP/IP packet, which causes the victim to try opening a connection with itself. This causes the system to go into an infinite loop trying to resolve this unexpected connection. Eventually, the connection times out, but during this resolution, the machine appears to hang or become very slow. The attacker sends such packets on a regular basis to slow down the system.

Unpatched Windows XP and Windows Server 2003 machines are vulnerable to these attacks. What type of Denial of Service attack is represented here?

A. SMURF Attacks

B. Targa attacks

C. LAND attacks

D. SYN Flood attacks

Correct Answer: C

The attack involves sending a spoofed TCP SYN packet (connection initiation) with the target host\’s IP address and an open port as both source and destination.The reason a LAND attack works is because it causes the machine to reply to itself continuously.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/LAND


Question 5:

You run nmap port Scan on 10.0.0.5 and attempt to gain banner/server information from services running on ports 21, 110 and 123.

Here is the output of your scan results: Which of the following nmap command did you run?

A. nmap -A -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5

B. nmap -F -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5

C. nmap -O -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5

D. nmap -T -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

You receive an e-mail with the following text message.

“Microsoft and HP today warned all customers that a new, highly dangerous virus has been discovered which will erase all your files at midnight. If there\’s a file called hidserv.exe on your computer, you have been infected and your computer

is now running a hidden server that allows hackers to access your computer. Delete the file immediately. Please also pass this message to all your friends and colleagues as soon as possible.”

You launch your antivirus software and scan the suspicious looking file hidserv.exe located in

c:\windows directory and the AV comes out clean meaning the file is not infected. You view the file signature and confirm that it is a legitimate Windows system file “Human Interface Device Service”.

What category of virus is this?

A. Virus hoax

B. Spooky Virus

C. Stealth Virus

D. Polymorphic Virus

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which of the following statement correctly defines ICMP Flood Attack? (Select 2 answers) A. Bogus ECHO reply packets are flooded on the network spoofing the IP and MAC address

B. The ICMP packets signal the victim system to reply and the combination of traffic saturates the bandwidth of the victim\’s network

C. ECHO packets are flooded on the network saturating the bandwidth of the subnet causing denial of service

D. A DDoS ICMP flood attack occurs when the zombies send large volumes of ICMP_ECHO_REPLY packets to the victim system.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

You are the CIO for Avantes Finance International, a global finance company based in Geneva. You are responsible for network functions and logical security throughout the entire corporation. Your company has over 250 servers running Windows Server, 5000 workstations running Windows Vista, and 200 mobile users working from laptops on Windows 7.

Last week, 10 of your company\’s laptops were stolen from salesmen while at a conference in Amsterdam. These laptops contained proprietary company information. While doing damage assessment on the possible public relations nightmare this may become, a news story leaks about the stolen laptops and also that sensitive information from those computers was posted to a blog online.

What built-in Windows feature could you have implemented to protect the sensitive information on these laptops?

A. You should have used 3DES which is built into Windows

B. If you would have implemented Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) which is built into Windows, the sensitive information on the laptops would not have leaked out

C. You should have utilized the built-in feature of Distributed File System (DFS) to protect the sensitive information on the laptops

D. You could have implemented Encrypted File System (EFS) to encrypt the sensitive files on the laptops

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

What techniques would you use to evade IDS during a Port Scan? (Select 4 answers)

A. Use fragmented IP packets

B. Spoof your IP address when launching attacks and sniff responses from the server

C. Overload the IDS with Junk traffic to mask your scan

D. Use source routing (if possible)

E. Connect to proxy servers or compromised Trojaned machines to launch attacks

Correct Answer: ABDE


Question 10:

Fred is scanning his network to ensure it is as secure as possible. Fred sends a TCP probe packet to a host with a FIN flag and he receives a RST/ACK response. What does this mean?

A. This response means the port he is scanning is open.

B. The RST/ACK response means the port Fred is scanning is disabled.

C. This means the port he is scanning is half open.

D. This means that the port he is scanning on the host is closed.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

File extensions provide information regarding the underlying server technology. Attackers can use this information to search vulnerabilities and launch attacks. How would you disable file extensions in Apache servers?

A. Use disable-eXchange

B. Use mod_negotiation

C. Use Stop_Files

D. Use Lib_exchanges

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

An Attacker creates a zuckerjournals.com website by copying and mirroring HACKERJOURNALS.COM site to spread the news that Hollywood actor Jason Jenkins died in a car accident. The attacker then submits his fake site for indexing in major search engines. When users search for “Jason Jenkins”, attacker\’s fake site shows up and dupes victims by the fake news.

This is another great example that some people do not know what URL\’s are. Real website: Fake website: http://www.zuckerjournals.com

The website is clearly not WWW.HACKERJOURNALS.COM. It is obvious for many, but unfortunately some people still do not know what an URL is. It\’s the address that you enter into the address bar at the top your browser and this is clearly not legit site, its www.zuckerjournals.com

How would you verify if a website is authentic or not?

A. Visit the site using secure HTTPS protocol and check the SSL certificate for authenticity

B. Navigate to the site by visiting various blogs and forums for authentic links

C. Enable Cache on your browser and lookout for error message warning on the screen

D. Visit the site by clicking on a link from Google search engine

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Blane is a network security analyst for his company. From an outside IP, Blane performs an XMAS scan using Nmap. Almost every port scanned does not illicit a response. What can he infer from this kind of response?

A. These ports are open because they do not illicit a response.

B. He can tell that these ports are in stealth mode.

C. If a port does not respond to an XMAS scan using NMAP, that port is closed.

D. The scan was not performed correctly using NMAP since all ports, no matter what their state, will illicit some sort of response from an XMAS scan.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

To see how some of the hosts on your network react, Winston sends out SYN packets to an IP range. A number of IPs respond with a SYN/ACK response. Before the connection is established he sends RST packets to those hosts to stop the session. Winston has done this to see how his intrusion detection system will log the traffic. What type of scan is Winston attempting here?

A. Winston is attempting to find live hosts on your company\’s network by using an XMAS scan.

B. He is utilizing a SYN scan to find live hosts that are listening on your network.

C. This type of scan he is using is called a NULL scan.

D. He is using a half-open scan to find live hosts on your network.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

What command would you type to OS fingerprint a server using the command line?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator has presented an HPE 3PAR StoreServer virtual volume to a server. A single virtual volume is seen as two different offline disks on a Windows 2012 R2 server. What must be done to correct the issue?

A. Install HPE 3PAR DSM MPIO and reboot the server.

B. Install the latest HBA driver and reboot the server.

C. Install the MPIO feature and reboot the server.

D. Install 3PAR host explorer and start service.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://assets.ext.hpe.com/is/content/hpedam/documents/4aa5-5000-5999/4aa5-5894/4aa5-5894enw.pdf (21)


Question 2:

A storage integrator is validating an HPE 3PAR StoreServ implementation. The integrator created a volume in the HPE 3PAR StoreServ Management Console (SSMC) and needs to verify read/write access from a Linux operating system. Which steps are part of the verification process? (Choose two.)

A. Select Hosts under the Servers menu section, and click Create server.

B. Select the volume in the Virtual Volumes section. and click Map Volume in the Actions menu.

C. Select the host in the Servers section, and click Add permission in the Actions menu.

D. Select the volume in the Virtual Volumes section, and click Export in the Actions menu.

E. Select Hosts in the Block Persona menu section, and click Create host.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 3:

A storage integrator installed an HPE 3PAR StoreServ system.

For which default accounts will the storage integrator need to hand over changed passwords to the customer?

A. 3parcust. 3paradm

B. cpmaint, spmaint

C. root, 3paradm

D. root, console

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=emr_na-a00006417en_us


Question 4:

Your customer has a requirement to provide identification information to the PDU such as server name, UUID number, and IP address from their ProLiant-based storage products. Which PDU do you recommend to meet this requirement?

A. HPE G2 Metered PDUs

B. HPE Intelligent PDU

C. HPE G2 Metered and Switched PDU

D. HPE Standard Series G2 Basic PDU

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://www.hp.com/hpinfo/newsroom/press_kits/2010/techforum2010/pdf/TF_IPD_DataSheet.pdf


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which port can be used to connect the HPE MSA 2040 controller to hosts?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 8

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=c03792322 (10)


Question 6:

A storage integrator is planning an HPE StoreVirtual VSA installation. Which network-related information may be needed for the implementation?

A. DHCP reservation for virtual IP address of the StoreVirtual cluster

B. jumbo frames need to be enabled for iSCSI traffic

C. flow-control needs to be disabled when using 10Gb NICs

D. virtual IP address for the StoreVirtual cluster

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=c05049837 (4)


Question 7:

A storage integrator has connected a new Windows Server 2012 host to a customer\’s fabric where five HPE 3PAR StoreServ arrays are already installed. The integrator plans to create a script to send the information about the new host to all HPE 3PAR arrays in an automated way.

Which Host Explorer command should be used?

A. tpdhostget status

B. hostagent set

C. tpdhostagent push

D. hostagent list

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA4-4524ENW.pdf (12)


Question 8:

An integrator is validating a design for an HPE 3PAR StoreServ solution. The assessment document shows that there is structured cabling between the rack the array will be installed in and the racks with the SAN switches. The fiber segments between the racks are documented as being 50 micron OM2 and are terminated with SC connectors.

What needs to be considered when validating this design?

A. 3PAR arrays must be directly connected to SAN switches.

B. The SC connectors must be replaced by LC connectors.

C. OM2 Fiber cables are not supported for 8 Gbps.

D. Fiber segments cannot mix OM2 and OM4 cables.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

A storage integrator has installed HPE OneView for vCenter to integrate HPE MSA 1040 management from a vSphere Web Client. Which typical configuration task is required after the installation of HPE OneView for vCenter?

A. license HPE OneView for VMware Storage Component

B. register HPE OneView for vCenter to Storage Management Utility

C. add HPE MSA Storage System to vCenter server

D. add vCenter server to HPE OneView for vCenter

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=a00037524en_us


Question 10:

A customer has two HPE StoreVirtual VSA instances installed on VMware vSphere hosts, 3TB of data allocated for both with 4TB VSA license. The customer has purchased an HPE StoreVirtual VSA 2014 Software Upgrade 4TB to 10TB upgrade license. The data store size is increased from 3TB to 10.5TB for both VMware servers.

What is required to make the newly-added capacity available? (Choose two.)

A. The VSA appliance needs to be restarted to rescan added storage and expand VSA RAID with the new capacity.

B. The upgrade license requires that the VSA appliance is redeployed.

C. The integrator must remove the current RAID configuration and create a new one after adding more storage to the VSA appliance.

D. The VSA virtual appliance requires more memory and cpu resources.

E. The VMware vmdk file needs to be extended from 3TB to 10TB for each VSA appliance. Then, VSA will detect the additional storage.

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04111621.pdf


Question 11:

A storage integrator is installing the HPE StoreVirtual Centralized Management Console (CMC) to manage a StoreVirtual VSA cluster. What is the proper procedure to install the console?

A. Download the StoreVirtual CMC installer and start the installation from primary StoreVirtual VSA node.

B. Download the CMC Appliance and deploy to a hypervisor not running StoreVirtual VSA nodes.

C. Download the StoreVirtual CMC installer and run on the computer with a supported Linux operating system.

D. Download the CMC Appliance and deploy to hypervisors running StoreVirtual VSA nodes.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=a00016289en_us


Question 12:

When is write throttling of HDDs invoked?

A. to synchronize speed of writing to multiple solid-state drives combined with rotational drives

B. to synchronize speed of writing to multiple solid-state drives

C. when drive wearing rate will cause the drive to fail before the warrantied time

D. when the power consumption of a drive exceeds the power cap

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://pdfs.semanticscholar.org/c078/528cdf6369cbb01881b8795d44bf799c7490.pdf


Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

A storage integrator is planning to map an HPE StoreServ virtual volume to a server.

Which tool can be used to gather required information, such as WWNs of the server, for exporting the volume?

A. HPE 3PAR PowerShell cmdlets

B. HPE 3PAR Host Explorer

C. HPE 3PAR CLI

D. Multipath I/O parameters

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A customer wants to expand their SAN environment, which is based on B-series FC switches. They have a virtualized environment and two HPE 3PAR StoreServ arrays.

Which tools can be used by the Integrator to check the health of the SAN environment before starting the expansion and after finishing? (Choose two.)

A. HPE SAN Network Advisor

B. HPE Complete AntemetA 3PAR Vision

C. Brocade SAN Health

D. HPE Enterprise Fabric Management Suite

E. HPE Central Management Console

Correct Answer: CE


Question 15:

A storage integrator is planning the implementation of a single HPE StoreOnce 3100.

How many power cords are required to be connected to PDU from this storage system, when power supply kit was ordered?

A. 0

B. 2

C. 4

D. 6

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04328820.pdf