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Question 1:

Which two of the listed requirements would be classified as performance non-functional requirements? (Choose two.)

A. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a recovery time objective of 30 minutes

B. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a minimum throughput of 400 MB/s

C. The vSphere platform must be able to provide N 1 redundancy

D. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a maximum read latency of 15 ms

E. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a service-level agreement (SLA) of 99,9%

Correct Answer: AD


Question 2:

An architect will be taking over control of a former Linux server fleet and repurposing the hardware into a new vSphere cluster. The current environment is already connected to the network but the hosts do not have any local disks. Since the fleet hardware is uniform, the architect can use a single ESXi image. All hosts within the cluster have the same CPU and memory capacity.

Which ESXi deployment method should the architect use?

A. Stateless cached vSphere Auto Deploy

B. Stateless vSphere Auto Deploy

C. Manual install of each ESXi host with an image from USB

D. Stateful vSphere Auto Deploy

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

An architect is finalizing the design for a new vCenter Server High Availability deployment.

What is one thing the architect must document in the design?

A. The load balancing algorithm used by the Management Distributed Virtual Switches (DVS)

B. The SSH configuration settings for the vCenter Server\’s active node

C. The vCenter Management Network IPv4 addresses for the witness node vCenter Server

D. The details of each of the vCenter Server licenses for active, passive and witness nodes

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

An architect is designing a new VMware solution for a customer that has a number of different resource

profiles.

The following are the business requirements for the design:

The solution must support virtual machines with the following storage profiles:

-Write-intensive

-Backup

-Write-Once-Read-Many (WORM) archive

The solution must support migration of virtual machine disks between storage profiles.

The WORM archive data must be located at an isolated secure site.

The backup storage array must only be connected to a backup media server.

All data should be recoverable from backup.

Which design decision should the architect make to meet the business requirements?

A. The solution will leverage a single storage array for the WORM archive and write-intensive storage profiles

B. The solution will leverage the same array for the backup and write-intensive storage profiles

C. The solution will leverage a different array for each storage profile

D. The solution will leverage a single storage array for all storage profiles

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

An architect is preparing a design for a company planning digital transformation. During the requirements

gathering workshop, the following requirements (REQ) and constraints (CON) are identified:

REQ01 The platform must host different types of workloads including applications that must be compliant

with internal security standard.

REQ02 The infrastructure must initially run 100 virtual machines.

REQ03 Ten of the virtual machines must be compliant with internal security standard.

REQ04 The internal security standard specifies logical network separation for in-scope applications.

CON01 The customer has already purchased the licenses as part of another project.

CON02 The customer has five physical servers that must be reused.

Additionally, based on resource requirements, four physical servers will be enough to run all workloads.

Which recommendation should the architect make to meet requirements while minimizing project costs?

A. Use Network I/O Control to ensure the internal security zone has higher share value

B. Purchase additional servers and plan separate, isolated clusters for workloads that must be compliant with internal security

C. Use a single cluster and ensure that different security zones are separated at least with dedicated VLANs and firewall

D. Use a single cluster and configure DRS anti-affinity rules to ensure internal security compliant virtual machines cannot migrate between ESXi hosts.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

An architect is designing the expansion of an existing vSphere 7 environment. The customer is requesting

a design for a new cluster to support the anticipated future business growth. The requirements specified

for the existing environment design must be considered when designing the new cluster.

The existing design has the following requirements:

REQ01 The environment has an availability target of 99.5% for all infrastructure.

REQ02 The recovery time objective (RTO) for Tier 1 virtual machines is one hour.

REQ03 Windows and Linux virtual machines must reside on separate clusters.

REQ04 Access to the management cluster within the environment must be controlled.

Which of the listed requirements would be classified as a functional requirement?

A. The environment has an availability target of 99.5% for all infrastructure

B. The recovery time objective (RTO) for Tier 1 virtual machines is one hour

C. Access to the management cluster within the environment must be controlled

D. Windows and Linux virtual machines must reside on separate clusters

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which two of the listed requirements would be classified as manageability non-functional requirements? (Choose two.)

A. ESXi clusters must scale when compute resources are sustained above 70% for five business days

B. vSphere Fault Tolerance must be supported to improve application uptime

C. ESXi host updates must be installed within one week of release

D. The vSphere environment must support administrator password rotation

E. ESXi clusters must scale to 500 concurrent virtual machines

Correct Answer: CE


Question 8:

An architect is designing a new vSphere environment to meet the following requirements:

The environment must support 5,000 virtual machines.

The environment will be built initially using 350 hosts.

Which vCenter Server appliance deployment size should the architect specify for the design?

A. Large

B. Small

C. Tiny

D. Medium

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

An architect is designing a new greenfield environment with 600 ESXi hosts in an automated fashion. The engineering department already has a PXE Boot server, TFTP server, and DHCP server set up with an NFS mount for their current Linux servers.

The architect must be able to demonstrate and meet a security requirement to have all infrastructure processes separated.

Which recommendation should the architect make for the ESXi host deployment?

A. Request an isolated network segment to use and dedicate it to Auto Deploy functions

B. Ask the business to expand the engineering environment to service the virtual environment as well

C. Request a common shared network with flexible security measures to accommodate different auto deployment options

D. Deploy each ESXi host individually and document it to satisfy security requirements

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

An architect is designing a new vSphere platform to meet a list of requirements from the security team.

Which two requirements would be classified as non-functional requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Migration of virtual machines between hosts must be encrypted

B. Log information must be verbose to support incident resolution

C. Critical events generated within the platform must be logged to an external Syslog service

D. Data integrity must be ensured

E. A common content library must be maintained across all data centers

Correct Answer: BC


Question 11:

An architect is finalizing the design for a new vSphere platform based on the following information:

All Windows virtual machines will be hosted on a dedicated cluster for licensing purposes.

All Linux virtual machines will be hosted on a dedicated cluster for licensing purposes.

All management virtual machines will be hosted on a dedicated cluster.

A total of ten physical sites will be used to host virtual machines.

In the event of one physical datacenter becoming unavailable, the manageability of the virtual

infrastructure in the remaining data centers should not be impacted.

Access to configure the management virtual machines via vCenter Server must be controlled through the

management Active Directory domain.

Access to configure the Windows and Linux virtual machines must be controlled through the resource

Active Directory domain.

The management and resource Active Directory domains are part of separate Active Directory forests and

do not have any trusts between them.

The design will use Active Directory with Integrated Windows Authentication.

How should the architect document the vCenter Server configuration for this design?

A. Deploy a vCenter server for the management cluster. Deploy a vCenter Server for all remaining clusters. Create a shared SSO domain for each physical site.

B. Deploy a vCenter Server for the management cluster. Deploy a vCenter Server for all remaining clusters. Create a shared SSO domain across all physical sites.

C. Deploy a vCenter Server for the management cluster with a dedicated SSO domain. Deploy a vCenter Server for all remaining clusters and use a dedicated SSO domain for each physical site.

D. Deploy a vCenter Server for the management cluster with a dedicated SSO domain. Deploy a vCenter Server for all remaining clusters and use a dedicated SSO domain into a single physical site.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

An architect is reviewing a physical storage design. The customer has specified that storage DRS will be used for ease of operational management for capacity and performance.

Which recommendation should the architect include in the design?

A. Create smaller datastores to balance space with Storage DRS

B. Use a larger number of storage profiles (varied disk speeds and RAID levels) to improve performance

C. Create larger datastores to balance space with Storage DRS

D. Create more datastores within each Storage DRS cluster to balance space and performance

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

An architect is tasked with planning the design of a new vSphere environment. When commissioned, this environment will be used to migrate an existing set of virtual machines.

An inventory of the existing infrastructure, including configured vCPU, RAM and storage sizes has been provided.

In order for each virtual machine to be migrated, which two data sources with peak and average utilization data are required for sizing? (Choose two.)

A. %Ready

B. Disk Write latency

C. CPU

D. Ballooned memory

E. IOPS

Correct Answer: BE


Question 14:

Which design decision must be included in a design to allow for the deployment of a minimum supported configuration of vCenter High Availability (HA)?

A. A new subnet will be provisioned for vCenter HA services

B. A vSphere cluster will consist of more than three nodes

C. The deployed vCenter Server will be Tiny

D. The vCenter HA network will support a latency of less than 50 ms

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

During a requirements gathering workshop, the customer shares the following about their existing ESXi

host virtual networking infrastructure:

The customer confirms that:

Each ESXi host has approximately 200 virtual machines.

They want to maximize the number of concurrent virtual machine migrations.

When placing a host in maintenance mode, it takes a long time to evacuate the virtual machines.

Which two recommendations should the architect make in order to help the customer overcome their

challenge? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the network to use MTU for the VMotion VMKernel to 1,600 bytes

B. Configure the network to use MTU for the VMotion VMKernel to 9,000 bytes

C. Create an additional standard switch with pNIC3 to use for vMotion

D. Use the 3 pNICs and bundle them in a link aggregation group (LAG) configuration

E. Use 10 GbE NICs instead of 1 GbE

Correct Answer: AD


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Question 1:

A custom section action can call what type of workflow?

A. System

B. Subflow

C. Synchronous

D. Asynchronous

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

What are two managed objects within the Administration Console?

A. Data Modeler

B. Agent Manager

C. Cache Manager

D. Report Manager

E. Event Scheduler

Correct Answer: BC


Question 3:

Which field name represents a custom Classification Rollup based on the naming convention defined in the guide: Application Building for the IBM TRIRIGA Application Platform 3?

A. triMoreCR

B. cstMoreCR

C. triRequiredCL

D. cstRequiredCL

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What happens when a related portal section is deleted from the Related Portal Section library?

A. It requires changes in the Security Manager.

B. It permanently deletes the section from the system.

C. It removes the section as an option for users of the particular portal.

D. It stays on the user\’s portal until the next time the system is restarted.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

When creating a new object migration package, what is a valid Create Mode option?

A. By Date

B. By Modified By

C. By Object Type

D. By Object Name

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What is a valid form name based upon the Application Building for the IBM TRIRIGA Application Platform 3guide?

A. cstform#1

B. MylstFormcst

C. cstMyFirstForm

D. cstMy First Form

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

After making changes to a portal, what actions are required for the user to see the changes?

A. clear the browser cache

B. sign out and sign back in

C. bounce the application server

D. clear the application cache from the admin console

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Which statement is true regarding the inclusion of Control Number in a Data Integrator template?

A. It should always be included.

B. It should only be used to update existing records.

C. It prevents the import process from updating records.

D. It is necessary to guarantee the creation of unique records.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which statement is true regarding an onChange event?

A. It cannot pop up another form.

B. It cannot pop up a query result.

C. It cannot trigger a state family action.

D. It cannot create a permanent association.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

How are changes made to a workflow saved in the workflow editor?

A. Changes are auto saved.

B. Changes are saved when the workflow is closed.

C. Changes are saved when the workflow is published.

D. Changes are saved when the Apply option is selected in each task property.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

How can an action be made to appear under the More action?

A. By using the More option in the form state transition action

B. By adding multiple sub actions on the state transition action

C. By using the Secondary Action option in the state transition action

D. By using the More option in the business object state transition action

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Which statement is true regarding a Query task?

A. It can only access queries created by the system user.

B. It can only access queries created by the user that created the workflow.

C. It can only access queries listed under the My Reports tab of the report manager.

D. It can only access queries listed under System Reports or the Community tab of the report manager.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Which hash type represents an individual data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?

A. Atomic

B. Root

C. Composite

D. Metadata

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

For each file that is backed up in an EMC Avamar system, how many total bytes are added to the file cache?

A. 20

B. 24

C. 40

D. 44

Correct Answer: D

The most important thing to do on a client with so many files is to make sure that the file cache is sized appropriately. The file cache is responsible for the vast majority (>90%) of the performance of the vamar client. If there\’s a file cache miss,

the client has to go and thrash your disk for a while chunking up a file that may already be on the server.

So how to tune the file cache size?

The file cache starts at 22MB in size and doubles in size each time it grows. Each file on a client will use 44 bytes of space in the file cache (two SHA-1 hashes consuming 20 bytes each and 4 bytes of metadata). For 25 million files, the client

will generate just over 1GB of cache data.

http://jslabonte.blogspot.com/2013/08/avamar-and-large-dataset-with-multiples.html


Question 3:

What is used by EMC Avamar to provide system-wide fault tolerance?

A. RAID, RAIN, Checkpoints, and Replication

B. RAID, RAIN, Checkpoints, and HFS check

C. Asynchronous crunching, Parity, RAIN, and Checkpoints

D. HFS check, RAIN, RAID, and Replication

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

The EMC Avamar client needs to backup a file and has performed sticky-byte factoring. This results in the following:

Seven (7) chunks that will compress at 30%

Four (4) that will compress at 23%

Two (2) chunks at 50% compression

How many chunks will be compressed prior to hashing?

A. 4

B. 7

C. 9

D. 13

Correct Answer: C

vamar, has a rather nifty technology called Sticky Byte Factoring which allows it to identify the changed information inside a file by breaking the file into variable length objects, this leads to much greater efficiency than fixed size approaches as changes made early in a fixed length sequence affect all subsequent blocks/chunks/objects/whatever in that sequence. This in turn changes all the fingerprints taken following the changed data which means you end up with a lot of new blocks/chunks/objects/whatever even if the data really hasn\’t changed all that much. Sticky Byte Factoring on the other hand can tell what exactly has changed, not just that things have changed.


Question 5:

Which four account management actions can be performed from the EMC Client Manager interface?

A. Move clients to a new server Retire clients Move clients to a new domain View management log

B. Move clients to a new domain Retire clients Modify client group associations Schedule backups

C. View management log Modify replication Retire clients Move clients to a new server

D. View management log Retire clients Delete clients Browse clients

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which tool is used to move a client to a new domain in EMC Avamar 6.0?

A. Client Manager

B. Activation Manager

C. Enterprise Manager

D. Installation Manager

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

How many simultaneous client connections per node will an EMC Avamar server support?

A. 10

B. 15

C. 18

D. 25

Correct Answer: C

During the backup window, an Avamar server has 18 backup “slots” per node, minus one slot that is globally reserved for restore.


Question 8:

A storage node in a multi-node Avamar server has failed and a replacement node has been added to the grid. What is used to reconstruct the data on the new node?

A. RAIN

B. RAID

C. Checkpoint

D. Replication

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which port on the Avamar server does the client connect to when performing a backup with encryption enabled?

A. 27000

B. 28001

C. 28002

D. 29000

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which time zone is used on EMC Avamar nodes?

A. Local time on the utility node; GMT/UTC on the storage nodes

B. GMT/UTC on the utility node; local time on the storage nodes

C. All node types use the local time

D. All nodes use GMT/UTC time

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

In an EMC Avamar backup operation, which process always produces identical chunk results given the same data?

A. Sticky-byte factoring

B. Compression

C. File caching

D. Hashing

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

On an EMC Avamar server, what is the file extension of stripes that contain backup chunks?

A. *.dat

B. *.usd

C. *.chd

D. *.cdt

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

A customer is unable to connect to their EMC Avamar server when using the Avamar Administrator GUI. If default settings are being used, which port must be open for a successful connection?

A. 5555

B. 7778

C. 8443

D. 8080

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which interface is used to start Avamar Client Manager?

A. Enterprise Manager

B. Command Line

C. cron job

D. Avamar Administrator

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which size Avamar Gen4 storage node is supported for a RAIN configuration?

A. 1.0 TB

B. 1.3 TB

C. 2.6 TB

D. 3.9 TB

Correct Answer: D

For Gen4 3.9TB node: Raw capacity is 6 TB and licensed capacity is 3.9 TB For Gen4 7.8 TB node: Raw capacity is 12 TB and licensed capacity is 7.8 TB So, In a RAIN config with 1 utility node and 4 storage nodes (7.8 TB), the total capacity should be 48 TB and total licensed capacity is 31.2 TB


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Question 1:

Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

Order the below steps to create an effective vulnerability management process.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

Given the various means to protect physical and logical assets, match the access management area to the technology.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 4:

Match the objectives to the assessment questions in the governance domain of Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM).

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 5:

What is the correct order of steps in an information security assessment?

Place the information security assessment steps on the left next to the numbered boxes on the right in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 6:

Match the functional roles in an external audit to their responsibilities. Drag each role on the left to its corresponding responsibility on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 7:

Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification negotiates how security tokens will be issued, renewed and validated? Click on the correct specification in the image below.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 8:

Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification maintains a single authenticated identity across multiple dissimilar environments? Click on the correct specification in the image below.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 9:

Identify the component that MOST likely lacks digital accountability related to information access.

Click on the correct device in the image below.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 10:

In the network design below, where is the MOST secure Local Area Network (LAN) segment to deploy a Wireless Access Point (WAP) that provides contractors access to the Internet and authorized enterprise services?

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:


Question 11:

All of the following items should be included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) questionnaire EXCEPT questions that

A. determine the risk of a business interruption occurring

B. determine the technological dependence of the business processes

C. Identify the operational impacts of a business interruption

D. Identify the financial impacts of a business interruption

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.google.com/url?sa=tandrct=jandq=andesrc=sandsource=webandcd=1andcad=rjaanduact=8andved=0ahUKEwjbktbTp- LaAhVIr48KHZuhB0UQFggmMAAandurl=http://www. oregon.gov/das/Procurement% 2FGuiddoc /BusImpAnalysQs.docandusg=AOvVaw1wBxcnLP8ceI_yhv2r sI9h


Question 12:

Which of the following actions will reduce risk to a laptop before traveling to a high risk area?

A. Examine the device for physical tampering

B. Implement more stringent baseline configurations

C. Purge or re-image the hard disk drive

D. Change access codes

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A company whose Information Technology (IT) services are being delivered from a Tier 4 data center, is preparing a companywide Business Continuity Planning (BCP). Which of the following failures should the IT manager be concerned with?

A. Application

B. Storage

C. Power

D. Network

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.colocationamerica.com/data-center/tier-standards-overview.htm


Question 14:

When assessing an organization\’s security policy according to standards established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 and 27002, when can management responsibilities be defined?

A. Only when assets are clearly defined

B. Only when standards are defined

C. Only when controls are put in place

D. Only procedures are defined

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which of the following types of technologies would be the MOST cost-effective method to provide a reactive control for protecting personnel in public areas?

A. Install mantraps at the building entrances

B. Enclose the personnel entry area with polycarbonate plastic

C. Supply a duress alarm for personnel exposed to the public

D. Hire a guard to protect the public area

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Which command verifies configuration syntax without applying the changes?

A. commit confirmed

B. commit check

C. commit comment

D. commit and-quit

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

By default, which character indicates the UNIX shell prompt?

A. #

B. %

C. $

D. >

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which two statements are true about static routes in the Junos OS? (Choose two.)

A. Static routes remain in the routing table until you remove them or until they become inactive.

B. Static routes must have a next hop defined.

C. Static routes are learned by neighboring devices and added to their routing tables.

D. Static routes are defined at the [edit routing-instances] hierarchy.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 4:

When multiple users are editing the configuration on a Junos device, what is the default behavior when a user issues a commit command?

A. All valid configuration changes made by all users will take effect.

B. The user\’s configuration changes are committed; other users\’ configuration changes are still pending.

C. The user will receive an error message disallowing a commit of the configuration.

D. The user\’s configuration changes are committed; other users will be exited from configuration mode.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Routing policies contain which two types of statements? (Choose two.)

A. then

B. from

C. default

D. and

Correct Answer: AB


Question 6:

You are connected to your Junos device using an SSH connection to the fxp0 interface. No other interfaces are currently configured beyond their default settings. You commit a configuration that makes the fxp0 interface unreachable from your management network.

In this scenario, how would you re-establish communication with the device?

A. Connect to the console of the device.

B. Establish an SSH connection to the loopback interface.

C. Power off and power on the device.

D. Unplug the network cable and plug it back in.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Referring to the exhibit, which command will cause this event message?

A. request system halt B. request system logout

C. request system recover

D. request system commit

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What are two benefits realized by the disaggregated Junos OS? (Choose two.)

A. There is increased flexibility to use different control plane versions.

B. The Junos VM becomes hardware-independent and can be deployed on any hypervisor without modification.

C. The architecture facilitates programmability through provisioning the control plane, the data path, and the platform APIs.

D. The platform drivers and forwarding engine are removed from the control plane to increase performance.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 9:

Which parameter of the monitor traffic command should be used with caution when considering storage space on a Junos device?

A. write-file

B. layer2-headers

C. extensive D. detail

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which two commands would you use to reset the candidate configuration to the active configuration? (Choose two.)

A. rollback 0

B. rollback 2

C. rollback 1

D. rollback

Correct Answer: AD


Question 11:

Which two statements are true regarding dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

A. Participating devices dynamically learn routing information from each other.

B. Dynamic routing requires more administrative overhead than static routing.

C. Dynamic routing allows a device to automatically reroute traffic around a failure.

D. Dynamic routing is used when absolute control of routing parameters is necessary.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 12:

Referring to the exhibit, what happens to a packet that has a destination address of 172.17.0.1?

A. The packet is forwarded to the next hop of the management network.

B. The packet is rejected and an ICMP network unreachable message is sent to the source address.

C. The packet is silently discarded.

D. The packet is forwarded to the next hop defined in the default route.

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

You notice that the terms in your firewall filter are not in the correct order.

What would solve this problem?

A. Use the next term action to force an evaluation of the next term.

B. Use the insert command to reorder the terms within the filter.

C. Use the count parameter to ensure that the terms are evaluated correctly.

D. Use the reject action to change the action of the filter.

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

Which command will show files stored in the /var/home/lab directory?

A. [email protected]> file show

B. [email protected]> file list

C. [edit] [email protected]# rollback ?

D. [email protected]> ls

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Which two statements are true about the default behavior of Junos routing policies? (Choose two.)

A. Routing policies control the flow of routing information going to and from the forwarding table.

B. Routing policies control the flow of routing information going to and from the routing table.

C. Routing policies can export active and inactive routes.

D. Routing policies can export only active routes.

Correct Answer: AD


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Question 1:

Which one of the following is NOT part of the approach to Phase H -Architecture Change Management?

A. Business Scenarios

B. Capacity Measurement

C. Change Management

D. Measuring Business Growth

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

When determining the requirements for enterprise architecture work in the Preliminary Phase, which of the following is not a business imperative that should be considered?

A. Business requirements

B. Cultural aspirations

C. Forecast financial requirements

D. Strategic Intent

E. Technical elegance

Correct Answer: E


Question 3:

Which of the following statements best describes risk management in the ADM?

A. Risk analysis is best conducted in the Architecture Vision phase so that the risk is eliminated in subsequent phases

B. Risk analysis should be carried out first in the Migration Planning phase

C. Risk analysis is outside the scope of enterprise architecture projects

D. Risk is pervasive in all enterprise architecture activity and should be managed in all phases of the ADM

E. The only risks that are within the scope of enterprise architecture are technological risks

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which of the following best describes capability based planning?

A. A business planning technique that focuses on business outcomes

B. A business planning technique that focuses on horizontal capabilities

C. A business planning technique that focuses on vertical capabilities

D. A human resource planning technique that focuses on capable architects

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of the following is a technique recommended by TOGAF to help identify and understand requirements?

A. Architecture Maturity Models

B. Business Scenarios

C. Gap Analysis

D. Mind Maps

E. SWOT Analysis

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

The statement, “Getting information to the right people at the right time in a secure, reliable man-ner in order to support the operations that are core to the extended enterprise” describes the concept of_____

A. Boundaryless Information Flow

B. Interoperability

C. Portability

D. Service Oriented Architecture

E. Semantic Web

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Gap Analysis is a technique used in Phases B, C, D and E. Which one of the following statements best describes the gap analysis technique?

A. It highlights areas of stakeholder concern

B. It highlights the impacts of change

C. It highlights services that are yet to be developed

D. It highlights services that are available

E. It highlights different viewpoints

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Which one of the following describes the practice by which the enterprise architecture is managed and controlled at an enterprise-wide level?

A. Architecture governance

B. Corporate governance

C. IT governance

D. Technology governance

E. Portfolio management

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Which one of the following does TOGAF Part VII recommend in order to implement an Enter-prise Architecture Capability?

A. Develop an Architecture Roadmap

B. Populate the Architecture Repository

C. Populate the Enterprise Continuum

D. Use the Architecture Development Method E. Use the Implementation Governance Phase

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which one of the following describes a purpose of an Architecture Compliance review?

A. To define the capabilities of the organization

B. To communicate the technical readiness of the project

C. To evaluate the readiness of the organization to undergo change

D. To produce a new Request for Architecture Work

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Complete the sentence. In TOGAF, every architecture view has an associated ____ that describes it, at least implicitly.

A. architecture building block

B. architecture model

C. architecture vision

D. requirement

E. viewpoint

Correct Answer: E


Question 12:

Complete the sentence. In TOGAF, legacy systems and processes that are going to be used again in the future are considered ______

A. Architecture Building Blocks

B. Components

C. Patterns

D. Re-usable Building Blocks

E. Solution Building Blocks

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?

A. Part I describes the TOGAF approach to Enterprise Architecture

B. Part II describes the definitions of terms used and the changes between versions of TOGAF

C. Part III describes requirements management and is considered to be the core of TOGAF

D. Part IV describes the ADM: a collection of guidelines and techniques used in TOGAF 9

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?

A. An artifact contains one or more deliverables

B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them

C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect

D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project

E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not

Correct Answer: E


Question 15:

According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, which category describes a technique that is referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated?

A. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques

B. TOGAF Recommended

C. TOGAF Supporting

D. TOGAF Extension

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

According to TOGAF, which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?

A. Application, Business, Data, Technology

B. Capability, Segment, Strategic

C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation

D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?

A. Part I describes the TOGAF approach to Enterprise Architecture

B. Part II describes the definitions of terms used and the changes between versions of TOGAF

C. Part III describes requirements management and is considered to be the core of TOGAF

D. Part IV describes the ADM: a collection of guidelines and techniques used in TOGAF 9

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

According to TOGAF, which one of the following best describes an enterprise architecture?

A. An architecture of a commercial organization

B. An architecture that consists of more than one subsidiary company

C. An architecture that crosses multiple systems, and multiple functional groups within the enterprise

D. The highest level of architecture that can be achieved in a given organization

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

In TOGAF, what is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?

A. An artifact contains one or more deliverables

B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them

C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect

D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project

E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not

Correct Answer: E


Question 5:

Which one of the following lists the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?

A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference Library, Compliance Strategy

B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Model

C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log

D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library, Governance Log

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which of the following reasons best describes why the ADM numbering scheme for versioning output is an example and not mandatory?

A. To show the evolution of deliverables

B. To permit adaptation as required

C. To enable use with the Architecture Content Framework

D. To support change management

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which of the following is the architecture domain that describes the logical software and hardware capabilities?

A. Application Architecture

B. Business Architecture

C. Data Architecture

D. Technology Architecture

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which one of the following is NOT an element of an architecture framework?

A. A common vocabulary

B. A list of recommended standards

C. A method for designing an information system in terms of building blocks

D. A set of structuresWhich can be used to develop a broad range of architectures

E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering

Correct Answer: E


Question 9:

Complete the sentence. To promote effective architectural activity within the enterprise, TOGAF 9 recommends the establishment of a(n) _____

A. Enterprise Architecture Capability

B. IT Governing Board

C. Program Management Office

D. Quality Assurance department

E. Service Management department

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

An association of companies has defined a data model for sharing inventory and pricing information.

Which of the following best describes where this model would fit in the Architecture Continuum?

A. Foundation Architecture

B. Common Systems Architecture

C. Industry Architecture

D. Organization Specific Architecture

E. Product Line Architecture

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which one of the following is a key objective of Phase A of the TOGAF ADM?

A. To create a roadmap that describes the evolution of the architecture over time

B. To prepare a Solution Architecture for the enterprise

C. To define an IT Strategy that maps out the technology infrastructure

D. To allocate the resources needed to implement the architecture project

E. To articulate an Architecture Vision

Correct Answer: E


Question 12:

According to TOGAF, Which of the following is the usual approach for developing the Baseline Business Architecture if no architecture or few architecture assets exist?

A. Bottom up

B. Envisioning

C. Extensive

D. Refactoring

E. Top down

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which phase of the ADM focuses on the governance and management of the Architecture Contracts that cover the overall implementation and deployment process?

A. Requirements Management

B. Phase E

C. Phase F

D. Phase G

E. Phase H

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Complete the sentence. A server consolidation project that does not change the operating characteristics of the applications would require _____.

A. a complete ADM cycle

B. a complete re-architecting change

C. a full revision of the enterprise architecture

D. an incremental change

E. a simplification change

Correct Answer: E


Question 15:

The Requirements Management Phase is responsible for which one of the following activities?

A. Addressing requirements

B. Disposal of resolved requirements

C. Generating requirements

D. Managing the flow of requirements

E. Prioritizing requirements

Correct Answer: D