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Question 1:

Which port needs to be opened for Alert Channel communication between Sensor and Manager through a firewall?

A. 8501

B. 8502

C. 8503

D. 8555

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

DoS detection is implemented in which of the following modes? (Choose two)

A. Learning mode

B. Configuration mode

C. Threshold mode

D. Bidirectional mode

E. Inbound mode

Correct Answer: AC


Question 3:

In double VLAN tagging, a second VLAN tag that is inserted into the frame is referred to as which of the following?

A. Customer Identification tag (CD)

B. VLAN Identification tag (VID)

C. Outer Identification tag (OID)

D. Inner Identification tag (HD)

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which attack cannot be blocked when the sensor has been set for in-line mode?

A. TCP Control Anomaly

B. ICMP Echo Anomaly

C. Too Many Inbound Syn

D. SCADA Attacks

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which CLI command is used to copy sensor SSL certificates from external flash when replacing a failed sensor?

A. Exportsensorcerts

B. Importsensorcerts

C. Exportcerts

D. Importcerts

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Reconnaissance Policies can be applied to which of the following sensor nodes?

A. Sensor name node only

B. Sensor interface node only

C. Sensor sub-interface node only

D. Sensor name, interface and sub-interface node

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

When the buffer on the alert cache has been filled, what happens to current incoming alerts?

A. Incoming alerts are added to the cache and the oldest alerts are dropped

B. Incoming alerts are not added to the cache and are dropped

C. Incoming alerts are held in queue until cache space is cleared

D. Incoming alerts are added to the database directly

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

What type of encryption is used for packet log transfers between the Sensor and the Manager?

A. SSL with RC4

B. SSL with MD5

C. SSL with RC4 and MD5

D. DES

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

When creating policies, which of the following rule sets are available for selection within those policies?

A. Only rule sets created using the Rule Set Editor

B. Only rule sets imported from the Sensor

C. Only rule sets created using the Rule Set Editor and Default rule sets

D. Only Default Rule sets

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which sensor action detects and drop attacks in real-time?

A. Drop further packets

B. Host Quarantine action

C. TCP reset

D. ICMP host unreachable

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Which of the following actions can a Standby Manager of an MDR pair perform?

A. Modify sensor configuration

B. Policy configuration

C. Signature update

D. Configuration backup

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which port needs to be opened for Alert Viewer communication between Client and Manager through a firewall?

A. 8501

B. 8502

C. 8503

D. 8555

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

Why is the DBAdmin tool considered a preferred method of performing system maintenance tasks that could be performed within the Manager?

A. Saves additional workload on the Manager

B. Reliability

C. Speed

D. Ease of use

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

What is the command to enable the sensor to forward all traffic at Layer 2 if a failure occurs?

A. Layer2 mode off

B. Layer2modeon

C. Layer2 mode assert

D. Layer2 mode deassert

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

A sensor is placed in-line and is dropping traffic. This situation demands an immediate removal of the sensor from the network to let traffic flow uninterrupted. Which option will you use to verify whether the issue is due to sensor configuration or network congestion?

A. Layer2modeon

B. Layer2 mode assert

C. Layer2 mode deassert

D. Layer2 mode off

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Match each port number with its appropriate protocol name.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

Which of the following is the height of 1U of space in a server rack?

A. 1.5 inches (3.8 cm)

B. 1.75 inches (4.4 cm)

C. 2 inches (5.1 cm)

D. 3 inches (7.6 cm)

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

A blade server chassis has two power supplies. Which of the following is a benefit of a technician connecting each power supply to a separate UPS unit?

A. Quality of service

B. Fault tolerance

C. Traffic shaping

D. Load balancing

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

A blade chassis can hold 16 half-height blades or eight full-height blades. Which of the following is the MAXIMUM number of half-height blades that can be installed in the chassis if six full-height blades are already installed?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A technician is asked to install an additional NIC in a server. Which of the following hardware considerations would be BEST for the technician to make?

A. Power consumption

B. Bus type and speed

C. CPU stepping

D. CAS latency

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

A server technician is replacing a web server in an organization. The new server has two integrated NICs. Which of the following describes how the NICs should be configured for fault protection?

A. The NICs should be configured separately with one MAC address.

B. The NICs should be placed into a team with one MAC address.

C. The NICs should be configured separately with two MAC addresses.

D. The NICs should be placed into a team with two MAC addresses.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A server administrator is implementing disk redundancy in all database servers. Which of the following RAID configurations should the administrator use so that a MINIMUM number of disks are required?

A. RAID 0

B. RAID 1

C. RAID 5

D. RAID 6

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

A certain rack mounted blade server chassis needs 3-phase power for operation. There is currently only single-phase power coming into the room. The administrator needs to:

A. call an electrician to wire the single-phase power into 3-phase power.

B. use a single-phase UPS to power the 3-phase server.

C. call an electrician to see if 3-phase power can be brought into the room.

D. use an adapter to configure the server to use single-phase power.

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which of the following is the MOST redundant power solution?

A. Two power supplies, each hooked up to individual legs of one 3-phase circuit.

B. Two power supplies, each hooked up to the same 1-phase circuit.

C. Two power supplies, each hooked up to separate 1-phase circuits.

D. One power supply hooked up to two 1-phase circuits.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

An administrator is tasked with deploying a server in a telephone switching station. Which of the following voltages will MOST likely be available at the facility?

A. -48VDC

B. 120VDC

C. 220VAC

D. 440VAC

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A system administrator needs to install an operating system onto a new server in a remote location using PXE. Which of the following methods will BEST accomplish this?

A. SSH

B. RDP

C. TFTP

D. HTTP

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

A technician is installing an operating system on a server using source files on a USB storage device. The technician is unable to boot to the USB device using different USB ports on the server. Which of the following should the technician do to ensure that the operating system can be installed from the USB storage?

A. Copy the source files to a CD

B. Install the latest USB device drivers

C. Reconfigure the boot order

D. Update the BIOS firmware

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

The IT director instructed the systems administrator to build a server to support the accounting department\’s file growth. The IT director requested that the accounting users have the ability to encrypt their files; however, the accounting users have reported the inability to encrypt their files. Which of the following file system types is MOST likely causing this issue?

A. QFS

B. ZFS

C. FAT32

D. CIFS

E. ext4

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which of the following server types translates FQDNs to IP addresses?

A. DHCP

B. SMTP

C. DNS

D. FTP

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Two servers are to be configured for high availability in a cluster. Both servers will be running applications at the same time. This feature is know as:

A. round robin.

B. heartbeat.

C. active/active.

D. active/passive.

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Examine the parameters shown using the sysctl command relating to panic situations: [[email protected] etc]# sysctl 璦 |grep panic |grep -v hung kernel.panic = 0 kernel.panic_on_oops = 0 kernel.softlockup_panic = 0 kernel.unknown_nmi_panic = 0 kernel.panic_on_unrecovered_nmi = 0 kernel.panic_on_io_nmi = 0 kernel.panic_on_oom = 2 [[email protected] etc]# sysctl 璦 |grep hung

kernel.hung_task_panic = 0 kernel.hung_task_chek_count ?4194304 kernel.hung_task_timeout_secs = 120 kernel.hung_task_warnings = 10

Which two statements are true about system behavior?

A. The kernel delays panic for a few seconds if a bug is encountered to allow the klogd kernel logging daemon to log the oops output.

B. The kernel panics if a kernel thread sleeps in the TASK_UNINTERRUPTABLE state for more than 120 seconds.

C. The kernel attempts to continue if a bug is encountered.

D. The kernel always panics if an out-of-memory condition arises.

E. The kernel tries to kill some memory-consuming processes to avoid a panic if an out-of- memory condition arises.

F. The kernel panics if a user thread sleeps in the TASK_UNINTERRUPTABLE state for more than 120 seconds.

Correct Answer: BF


Question 2:

After creating empty mount point /xfs1, you execute the command:

# mkfs –t xfs –L /xfs1 –l logdev=/dev/sdd1 /dev/sdh1

Which two statements are true about the effects of executing the mkfs command?

A. It fails if there is an existing XFS file system on /dev/sdh1.

B. It fails if there is an existing XFS log on /dev/sdd1.

C. It fails if there is an existing XFS file system on /dev/sdd1.

D. It fails because there is no size specified for the XFS log.

E. The xfs1 file system is mounted automatically during system startup.

F. It creates and mounts the /xfs1 file system.

Correct Answer: DF


Question 3:

Which two statements are true about recursive nameservers that are supported by Oracle Linux?

A. They may be authoritative.

B. They may forward requests to authoritative name servers on some occasions.

C. They may be primary nameservers.

D. They cache replies from previous name resolution requests.

E. They may be secondary nameservers.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 4:

While copying a file to the /users file system, which is located on /dev/sdd1, you receive an error:

$ cp /etc/oratab /users/oracle cp: cannot create regular file `/users/oracle/oratab\’: Disk quota exceeded You examine your assigned quota as shown: $ quota -q Disk quotas for user oracle (uid 500):

Which option represents the reason for receiving the Disk quota exceeded error?

A. The oracle user has reached its block quota.

B. The oracle user exceeded its file quota five days ago.

C. The oracle user has reached a group quota limit.

D. The /users file system is full.

E. The oracle user exceeded its block quota six days ago.

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

For which domain or domains does the default cache-only nameserver have a list of authoritative servers in the /var/named/named. ca file?

A. the domain to which the cache only nameserver belongs

B. the root domain

C. the domains to which the local DHCP servers belong

D. the domains to which the local DNS servers belong

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Examine the udevadm command:

udevadm info –query=all –name=/dev/sdb

What does this command display?

A. the device tree, and all properties maintained in sysfs for all parent devices in the device tree for the /dev/sdb disk device

B. all properties maintained in sysfs for the /dev/sdb kernel device, excluding parent devices

C. all properties maintained in devfs for the /dev/sdb kernel device, excluding parent devices

D. the device tree, and all properties maintained in devfs for the /dev/sdb device, including properties of all parent devices in the device tree for the /dev/sdb disk device

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which two parameters are valid networking modes for a Linux container (LXC)?

A. veth

B. bridged

C. nat

D. macvlan

E. routed

Correct Answer: BC


Question 8:

Which three statements are true about support for the XFS file system in Oracle Linux?

A. It is a journaling, extend-based file system.

B. It is not supported for the /boot file system.

C. It is supported for the root (/) file system.

D. It supports user and group disk quotas.

E. It is supported only when created on Logical Volumes.

F. It has a built-in volume manager.

Correct Answer: BDF

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E37670_01/E37355/html/ol_about_xfs.html


Question 9:

Identify the two commands that can be used to set SELinux file labels back to their default values.

A. chcon

B. fixfiles

C. semanage fcontext

D. restorecon

E. matchpathcon

F. opdate_selinux

Correct Answer: AD


Question 10:

Which statement describes the default network set up by an Oracle template script?

A. The container is isolated from the network.

B. A veth device is added to libvirt\’s virbr0 bridge.

C. A macvlan device enables DHCP from the host\’s network.

D. A private interface is routed to Open vSwitch.

Correct Answer: B

By default, the lxc-oracle template script sets up networking by setting up a veth bridge. In this mode, a container obtains its IP address from the dnsmasq server that libvirtd runs on the private virtual bridge network (virbr0) between the container and the host. The host allows a container to connect to the rest of the network by using NAT rules in iptables, but these rules do not allow incoming connections to the container. Both the host and other containers on the veth bridge have network access to the container via the bridge.


Question 11:

Consider a cgroup configuration in the /etc/cgconfig.conf file:

mount {

cpuset = /cgroup/A;

cpu = /cgroup/A;

cpuacct = /cgroup/cpuacct;

}

group A1 {

perm {

admin {

uid = root;

gid = wheel;

}

task {

uid = root;

gid = users;

}

}

cpuset {

cpuset.mems=”0″;

cpuset.cpus=”0″;

}

cpu {

cpu.shares=”5″;

}

}

group A2 {

perm {

admin {

uid = root;

admin {

uid = root

gid = root;

}

task {

uid = root;

gid = users;

}

}

cpuset {

cpuset.mems=”0″;

cpuset.cpus=”1″;

}

cpu {

cpu.shares=”5″;

}

}

Which two statements are true?

A. Two cgroup hierarchies and three subsystems are defined; cgroup A1 and A2 are located in the same sgroup hierarchy.

B. Two cgroup hierarchies and three subsystems are defined; cgroup A1 and A2 are located in different cgroup hierarchiers.

C. Three cgroup hierarchies and three subsystems are defined; cgroup A1 and A2 are located in the same sgroup hierarchy.

D. Three cgroup hierarchies and three subsystems are defined; cgroup A1 and A2 are located in different cgroup hierarchiers.

E. Any user who is a member of the users group is allowed to move his or her own tasks from the root cgroup to cgroup A1 or cgroup A2.

F. Any user who is a member of the users group is allowed to execute tasks in cgroups A1 and A2 and change the cpu.shares parameter in cgroups A1 and A2.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 12:

What statement is true about udev?

A. It uses predefined kernel devices in /dev for all combinations of that may be connected to a system to support dynamic device name assignment.

B. It dynamically creates kernel devices for only those devices that are connected.

C. It produces persistent device names for all devices.

D. Its configuration is based on device properties and attributes maintained in devfs.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://www.linuxfromscratch.org/lfs/view/development/chapter07/udev.html


Question 13:

Which three statements are true about an OpenLDAP server?

A. /etc/openldap.conf is the main configuration file for the LDAP server.

B. LDAP entries are stored in a flat namespace.

C. It can be used to store users and groups.

D. In can be used to store hostnames and their IP addresses.

E. It can replicate entries synchronously to another OpenLDAP server.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 14:

Identify the minimum required steps to configure an NIS master.

1.

Ensure that the yptools, ypbind, and ypserv RPMs are installed.

2.

Configure and set the NIS domain name.

3.

Start the ypserv service.

4.

Start the ypxfrd service.

5.

Start the yppasswdd service

6.

Run ypinit -m

7.

Start the ypbind service

A. 1, 2, 3, 6

B. 1, 2 , 3, 6, 7

C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7

E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://pashasysadm.wordpress.com/2014/06/16/nis-master-client-server-configuration-setup/


Question 15:

Which three types of output may be obtained from commands from the crash utility in Oracle Linux?

A. kernel data structures

B. information about all open and closed files

C. kernel symbol names

D. information about all mounted and unmounted file systems

E. a list of tasks on the sleep queue

F. a list of tasks on the stopped queue

Correct Answer: ABC


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Question 1:

A network team has decided to utilize NSX to enable microsegmentation in its environment. Several networks have been created to support a three-tiered application network. An architect has been asked to incorporate this into the vRealize

Automation environment and consume these networks on demand.

What are two things the architect needs to take into consideration in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. usable Subnet Mask in the network profiles

B. routed network profiles assigned to virtual machine port groups in the reservation

C. external network profile for each application tier

D. routed network profile for each application tier

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/products/nsx/vmwareautomation-fundamentals-book.pdf


Question 2:

A company has a main office, three regional offices, and six branches offices. The network links are configured as shown in the exhibit. View the Exhibit:

During information gathering, an architect records: The regional offices are located in secure bunkers. The CTO feels this would be a good location for all the vRealize Automation components to meet their BC/DR objectives. However, the CTO is looking for the best design while maintaining their very high security requirements. The branch offices are located in very remote locations with unpredictable network performance. Reliance on the main and regional offices needs to be minimal while still allowing provisioning of machines in the branch offices. The branch offices consist of three host vSphere clusters. There is synchronous vSphere Metro Storage Cluster (vMSC) between the regional offices as well as replicated backups between the regional offices with replication running nightly. The CEO wants to have the lowest possible RPO and RTO of the vRealize portal including the ability to manage already provisioned machines while NOT increasing the amount of data being replicated between the regional offices as much as possible. Referring to the exhibit, which two design specifications can the architect recommend to meet requirements? (Choose two.)

A. distributed vRealize Automation management solution in the main office

B. vSphere agents in each of the branch offices

C. distributed vRealize Automation management solution in each of the regional offices

D. distributed vRealize Automation management solution across the regional offices

E. vSphere agents in the regional offices that manage the regional and branch offices

Correct Answer: DE


Question 3:

Which two-factor authentication mechanism is supported by vRealize Automation?

A. Mobile SSO (Secure Sign-On) authentication

B. AirWatch Cloud Connector authentication

C. Certificate-based authentication

D. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) authentication

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

During requirements gathering for an organization\’s private cloud on a single machine catalog, the following requirements were identified:

A user should be able to select a data center location which is mapped to a custom resource by the fabric administrator.

A Guest VM custom hostname format should be based on the first two letters of the data center location.

A generated VM custom hostname format should be displayed as a drop-down in the catalog request pageusing a vRealize Automation (vRA) custom property backed by external vRealize Orchestrator (vRO) action.

Which design recommendation would best address these requirements?

A. Define a custom property “_vrm.DataCenter.Location” with static datacenter values, assign it to the blueprint with the “Show in the request” check box selected and map it as an input to the required vRO action.

B. Define a custom property “Vrm.DataCenter.Location” with static datacenter values, assign it to the blueprint with the “Show in the request” check box selected and map it as an input to the required vRO action.

C. Enable “Display location on request” in the blueprint\’s VM machine type, map the built-in “Vrm.DataCenter.Location” custom property as an input to the required vRO action.

D. No new custom property is required since the fabric administrator has already mapped datacenter locations to the correct compute resources. Map the built-in “_vrm.DataCenter.Location” custom property as an input to the required vRO action.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/7.5/com.vmware.vrA.prepare.use.doc/GUIDFA2ED665-4973-435C-A93B-8E4EAB5D1F8A.html


Question 5:

A cloud architect is trying to determine the operational impacts of adding another business group (DevOps) to the company\’s existing vRealize Automation (vRA) deployment. Existing users have reported that response times for login into their

vRA infrastructure has spiked recently and it is taking longer than usual. The Active Directory user base, after the addition of DevOps users, could increase to well over 100,000 users and 50 groups.

What is the VMware-recommended design to address this scenario?

A. Add an additional connector to the existing Active Directory.

B. Add an additional IaaS proxy agent.

C. Add an additional IaaS DEM server.

D. Change the default access policy when adding the additional user base.

E. Increase the vRA virtual appliance memory allocation on each machine as per sizing guidelines.

Correct Answer: E


Question 6:

A cloud architect is tasked with designing a Guest virtual machine (VM) request form for an organization\’s new vRealize Automation (vRA) implementation. Its current PowerCLI VM request tool uses a PowerShell script that retrieves user IDs

from Active Directory, which is the same identity source for vRealize Automation. The intent of the script is to retrieve and display John Smith when the actual value in Active Directory is JSmith01.

What is the most secure way to utilize the same script for user\’s display name in the vRA request form?

A. Design a schedule vRealize Orchestrator workflow to execute the PowerShell Script and update the vRealize Automation drop-down custom property with static values.

B. Design a schedule vRealize Orchestrator (vRO) workflow to execute the PowerShell Script and store values in vRO, then utilize the vRA external drop-down to retrieve these values from vRO.

C. Design a display custom property in the vRA `Administration/Active Directory Policy\’ that maps to the correct organizational unit.

D. Create a drop-down custom property with external values that returns a display name using the existing PowerShell script.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

A cloud architect is tasked with providing a design for integration with a third-party system.

The following requirements have been identified:

When a user requests a virtual machine, vRealize Automation should pass the user selected application name with its key to the third-party system.

The application list could be updated weekly following the architecture approval meeting. It currently has 250 items.

Impacts to the vRealize Automation virtual machine request screen\’s performance should be minimized.

What would be the best solution to meet these requirements?

A. Create a vRO action to return application values as “Array\String” by reading from the third-party system dynamically, Create a display drop-down custom property with external values and map it to the vRO action.

B. Design a schedule vRealize Orchestrator (vRO) workflow to read values from the third-party system and store in vRO, Create a vRO action to return application values stored in vRO as “Properties”, Create a Display drop-down custom property with external values and map it to the vRO action.

C. Create a Display drop-down custom property with external values and provide AJAX call information to the third-party system.

D. Design a schedule vRO workflow to read values from the third-party and store in vRO, Create a vRO action to return application values stored in vRO as “Array\String”, Create a Display drop-down custom property with external values and map it to the vRO action.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

An IaaS Administrator has been tasked with organizing virtualization compute resources and cloud endpoints into fabric groups by type and intent. One or more fabric administrators will manage the resources in each fabric group. Which are three considerations to take into account when designing the fabric groups? (Choose three.)

A. Fabric administrators are responsible for creating reservations on the compute resources in their fabric groups to allocate fabric to specific business groups.

B. Fabric administrators monitor the resource use for their group(s) and often are approvers for catalog requests.

C. Fabric administrators may submit requests on behalf of other users. These users could be a member of more than one group and have different roles in different groups.

D. The IaaS administrator must grant the role of fabric administrator to the appropriate users.

E. Fabric groups will be created in a specific tenant, but their resources could be made available to users who belong to business groups in all tenants.

Correct Answer: ADE

Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vCAC-61/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vcac.concepts.doc/GUID-CC81881E-8DE0-4A09-ABC2-2B34240E5686.html


Question 9:

Development team members would like to deploy multiple software packages within a blueprint. One of these software packages, Tax Processing 1.0, has licensing requirements. Any member of the finance team can authorize the installation

per request, but the entire team must be notified.

Which approval policies would satisfy this request?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which three statements are true regarding a multitenant deployment where each tenant managed its own infrastructure in vRealize Automation? (Choose three.)

A. Each tenant has an IaaS administrator who could create fabric groups and appoint fabric administrators with their respective tenants.

B. Fabric administrators CANNOT create reservations for business groups in other tenants.

C. Each tenant must provide its own infrastructure resources and CANNOT share a common infrastructure.

D. The system administrator is the only user who logs in to the default tenant to manage system-wide configurations and create tenants.

E. Fabric administrators manage reservations only for the users in their own tenant.

Correct Answer: ADE

Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/7.4/com.vmware.vrA.prepare.use.doc/GUID-12E7F3C7-744E-43E3-B6B6-ACDC28B70261.html


Question 11:

An architect has been tasked with designing a vRealize Automation blueprint that includes Linux machines.

The design includes a requirement that all newly-created machines be added to the corporate DNS. Which two design specifications will address the needs of this scenario?

A. Use custom properties on each machine within the blueprint that provides the details for adding the machine to the corporate DNS.

B. Create an Event Broker subscription that runs an appropriate vRealize Orchestrator workflow during an appropriate machine lifecycle state.

C. Add and configure the appropriate XaaS component into the machine blueprint.

D. Create an XaaS blueprint that adds the machine to DNS and then builds the machine.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 12:

An architect has been tasked with designing a blueprint containing web, application and database machines utilizing NSX for networking. Upon provisioning, network traffic must be automatically restricted to allow:

1.

The web server to communicate only to the application server

2.

The application server to communicate to both the web and database servers

3.

The database server to be blocked from communicating to the other servers

Which two methods could the architect use to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. Assign an appropriate security group to the entitled items or entitled service within the entitlement.

B. Add an appropriate security group to the blueprint from within the blueprint properties, under NSX Settings.

C. Create or update an appropriate security group within NSX to include the provisioned machines.

D. Specify an appropriate security group in the blueprint and assign it to each machine.

E. Use an Event Broker subscription to ensure that provisioned machines are receiving the appropriate security group assignment.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 13:

IT Services would like to automate the allocation of software applications. The company uses a modern virtual desktop platform with software management capabilities, and the platform supports interoperability via a REST API. The following requirements have been established for this project:

1.

Business users will use a self-service portal to request software added to their existing system.

2.

The requestor may select one or more software applications from a list during the request.

3.

The software application list must be up-to-date.

4.

The virtual desktop team will provide REST API calls needed to interface with the existing platform.

Which three of these listed elements are required for this scenario? (Choose three.)

A. Customization of XaaS form

B. vRealize Orchestrator workflow with script action

C. Resource mapping

D. Resource action

E. External value definition

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 14:

An architect is tasked with designing a multi-region Software Defined Data Center (SDDC) deployment. The operations team has mandated that the solution enable real-time logging for all automation components. The architect makes a design decision to use a vRealize Log Insight cluster in each region, consisting of a total of three nodes. Which three data sources are required to be in scope? (Choose three.)

A. vRealize Automation Appliance

B. NSX Manager, NSX Controller instances and NSX Edge instances

C. vRealize Operations Manager

D. vRealize Orchestrator

E. vRealize IaaS Server

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 15:

A company has deployed vRealize Automation into its production environment and now wants to integrate it with different components of its infrastructure through the REST API. What are three services provided by the REST API? (Choose three.)

A. Blueprint Service

B. Forms Service

C. Monitoring Service

D. Portal Service

E. Approval Service

Correct Answer: CDE

Reference:

https://docs.vmware.com/cn/vRealize-Automation/7.2/com.vmware.vrA.programming.doc/GUIDFBF2B82A- F5F3-43DC-A2FA-66BCF3C79EC3.html


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Question 1:

What refers to an agreement between provider and consumer that states the terms of service usage?

A. Service contract

B. Service template

C. Chargeback

D. Showback

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

What is an advantage of adopting a microservices strategy in an application development environment?

A. All microservices of an application are always updated at the same time for maintaining consistency in the application

B. Every microservice can be deployed, upgraded, scaled, and restarted independent of other services in the application

C. Microservices are tightly coupled so it is easy to scale all the services at once to meet business demands

D. Microservices provide the application platform to implement DevOps in the organization easily and at low cost

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which role in service portfolio management determines and delivers the services that provide value and strategic advantage to the provider?

A. Cloud Service Account Manager

B. Cloud Automation Engineer

C. Cloud Administrator

D. Cloud Auditor

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Which management process ensures business continuity by eliminating single points of failure in a data center?

A. Availability management

B. Security management

C. Capacity management

D. Performance management

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which phase of the cloud service lifecycle involves making business use case decisions for the cloud service offering portfolio?

A. Service Termination

B. Service Planning

C. Service Creation

D. Service Operation

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

The incident management team is unable to determine the root cause of an incident. To which team should the error-correction activity be transferred?

A. Performance Management

B. Change Management

C. Availability Management

D. Problem Management

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

What mechanism does RSA SecurID use?

A. Single sign-on authentication

B. Policy-based authorization

C. Multi-factor authentication

D. Role-based authorization

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

What capability does an orchestration workflow provide?

A. Helps administer the cloud infrastructure, such as adding resources to a resource pool, billing, and reporting

B. Helps to consolidate all the IT resources in the cloud environment

C. Enables the administrator to control the underlying physical infrastructure using a single unified management console

D. Creates an automated set of tasks to update the service catalog by cloud consumers without requiring manual intervention

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

What can an IT department do to better meet IT challenges and support digital businesses?

A. Become more technology centric

B. Focus on delivery and management of digital assets

C. Become more service centric within cost constraints

D. Focus on providing services without being distracted by costs

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

What is a key benefit of using containers?

A. Eliminates any long-term commitments to a technology stack

B. Helps speed up software release cycles and improve software quality

C. Enables services to be delivered in hour or days, not weeks

D. Provides better probability without requiring code changes

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

What is the purpose of a bitmap in snapshot creation?

A. Keeps track of blocks that have changed in the filesystem

B. Indicates the exact address from which data has to be read

C. Indicates the exact address to where data has to be written

D. Keeps track of the number of blocks that are highly utilized

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which method optimizes network performance by distributing network traffic across the shared bandwidth of all the ISLs?

A. Link aggregation

B. Network zoning

C. Network segmentation

D. Link failover

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Which process involves determining the optimal resources required to meet seasonal spikes in resource demand?

A. Configuration management

B. Change management

C. Capacity management

D. Incident management

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which task describes adherence to compliance?

A. Ensure security policies are being enforced

B. Define access rights to users

C. Assess the cloud provider\’s capability to provide logs

D. Assess assets with realistic valuations

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Which activity is conducted during the service termination phase of the cloud service lifecycle?

A. De-provisioning the service instance

B. Asking for the service contract

C. Establishing the billing policy

D. Providing the final service assessment report

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

In the field of cryptanalysis, what is meant by a “rubber-hose” attack?

A. Forcing the targeted keystream through a hardware-accelerated device such as an ASIC.

B. A backdoor placed into a cryptographic algorithm by its creator.

C. Extraction of cryptographic secrets through coercion or torture.

D. Attempting to decrypt ciphertext by making logical assumptions about the contents of the original plaintext.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

When considering how an attacker may exploit a web server, what is web server footprinting?

A. When an attacker implements a vulnerability scanner to identify weaknesses

B. When an attacker creates a complete profile of the site\’s external links and file structures

C. When an attacker gathers system-level data, including account details and server names

D. When an attacker uses a brute-force attack to crack a web-server password

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

When configuring wireless on his home router, Javik disables SSID broadcast. He leaves authentication “open” but sets the SSID to a 32-character string of random letters and numbers.

What is an accurate assessment of this scenario from a security perspective?

A. Since the SSID is required in order to connect, the 32-character string is sufficient to prevent brute-force attacks.

B. Disabling SSID broadcast prevents 802.11 beacons from being transmitted from the access point, resulting in a valid setup leveraging “security through obscurity”.

C. It is still possible for a hacker to connect to the network after sniffing the SSID from a successful wireless association.

D. Javik\’s router is still vulnerable to wireless hacking attempts because the SSID broadcast setting can be enabled using a specially crafted packet sent to the hardware address of the access point.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

what are common files on a web server that can be misconfigured and provide useful Information for a hacker such as verbose error messages?

A. httpd.conf

B. administration.config

C. idq.dll

D. php.ini

Correct Answer: D

The php.ini file may be a special file for PHP. it\’s where you declare changes to your PHP settings. The server is already configured with standard settings for PHP, which your site will use by default. Unless you would like to vary one or more settings, there\’s no got to create or modify a php.ini file. If you\’d wish to make any changes to settings, please do so through the MultiPHP INI Editor.


Question 5:

What is the common name for a vulnerability disclosure program opened by companies In platforms such as HackerOne?

A. Vulnerability hunting program

B. Bug bounty program

C. White-hat hacking program

D. Ethical hacking program

Correct Answer: B

Bug bounty programs allow independent security researchers to report bugs to an companies and receive rewards or compensation. These bugs area unit sometimes security exploits and vulnerabilities, although they will additionally embody method problems, hardware flaws, and so on. The reports area unit usually created through a program travel by associate degree freelance third party (like Bugcrowd or HackerOne). The companies can got wind of (and run) a program curated to the organization\’s wants. Programs is also non-public (invite-only) wherever reports area unit unbroken confidential to the organization or public (where anyone will sign in and join). they will happen over a collection timeframe or with without stopping date (though the second possibility is a lot of common). Who uses bug bounty programs?Many major organizations use bug bounties as an area of their security program, together with AOL, Android, Apple, Digital Ocean, and goldman Sachs. you\’ll read an inventory of all the programs offered by major bug bounty suppliers, Bugcrowd and HackerOne, at these links. Why do corporations use bug bounty programs?Bug bounty programs provide corporations the flexibility to harness an outsized cluster of hackers so as to seek out bugs in their code. This gives them access to a bigger variety of hackers or testers than they\’d be able to access on a one-on-one basis. It {can also|also will|can even|may also|may} increase the probabilities that bugs area unit found and reported to them before malicious hackers can exploit them. It may also be an honest publicity alternative for a firm. As bug bounties became a lot of common, having a bug bounty program will signal to the general public and even regulators that a corporation incorporates a mature security program. This trend is likely to continue, as some have began to see bug bounty programs as an business normal that all companies ought to invest in. Why do researchers and hackers participate in bug bounty programs?Finding and news bugs via a bug bounty program may end up in each money bonuses and recognition. In some cases, it will be a good thanks to show real-world expertise once you are looking for employment, or will even facilitate introduce you to parents on the protection team within an companies. This can be full time income for a few of us, income to supplement employment, or the way to point out off your skills and find a full time job. It may also be fun! it is a nice (legal) probability to check out your skills against huge companies and government agencies. What area unit the disadvantages of a bug bounty program for independent researchers and hackers?A lot of hackers participate in these varieties of programs, and it will be tough to form a major quantity of cash on the platform. In order to say the reward, the hacker has to be the primary person to submit the bug to the program. meaning that in apply, you may pay weeks searching for a bug to use, solely to be the person to report it and build no cash. Roughly ninety seven of participants on major bug bounty platforms haven\’t sold-out a bug. In fact, a 2019 report from HackerOne confirmed that out of quite three hundred,000 registered users, solely around two.5% received a bounty in their time on the platform. Essentially, most hackers are not creating a lot of cash on these platforms, and really few square measure creating enough to switch a full time wage (plus they do not have advantages like vacation days, insurance, and retirement planning). What square measure the disadvantages of bug bounty programs for organizations?These programs square measure solely helpful if the program ends up in the companies realizeing issues that they weren\’t able to find themselves (and if they\’ll fix those problems)! If the companies is not mature enough to be able to quickly rectify known problems, a bug bounty program is not the right alternative for his or her companies. Also, any bug bounty program is probably going to draw in an outsized range of submissions, several of which can not be high-quality submissions. a corporation must be ready to cope with the exaggerated volume of alerts, and also the risk of a coffee signal to noise magnitude relation (essentially that it\’s probably that they\’re going to receive quite few unhelpful reports for each useful report). Additionally, if the program does not attract enough participants (or participants with the incorrect talent set, and so participants are not able to establish any bugs), the program is not useful for the companies. The overwhelming majority of bug bounty participants consider web site vulnerabilities (72%, per HackerOn), whereas solely a number of (3.5%) value more highly to seek for package vulnerabilities. This is probably because of the actual fact that hacking in operation systems (like network hardware and memory) needs a big quantity of extremely specialised experience. this implies that firms may even see vital come on investment for bug bounties on websites, and not for alternative applications, notably those that need specialised experience. This conjointly implies that organizations which require to look at AN application or web site among a selected time-frame may not need to rely on a bug bounty as there is no guarantee of once or if they receive reports. Finally, it are often probably risky to permit freelance researchers to try to penetrate your network. this could end in public speech act of bugs, inflicting name harm within the limelight (which could end in individuals not eager to purchase the organizations\’ product or service), or speech act of bugs to additional malicious third parties, United Nations agency may use this data to focus on the organization.


Question 6:

An attacker identified that a user and an access point are both compatible with WPA2 and WPA3 encryption. The attacker installed a rogue access point with only WPA2 compatibility in the vicinity and forced the victim to go through the WPA2 four-way handshake to get connected. After the connection was established, the attacker used automated tools to crack WPA2-encrypted messages. What is the attack performed in the above scenario?

A. Timing-based attack

B. Side-channel attack

C. Downgrade security attack

D. Cache-based attack

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Packet Sniffers operate on the Layer 1 of the OSI model.

B. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 2 of the OSI model.

C. Packet Sniffers operate on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 of the OSI model.

D. Packet Sniffers operate on Layer 3 of the OSI model.

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Ralph, a professional hacker, targeted Jane, who had recently bought new systems for her company. After a few days, Ralph contacted Jane while masquerading as a legitimate customer support executive, informing that her systems need to be serviced for proper functioning and that customer support will send a computer technician. Jane promptly replied positively. Ralph entered Jane\’s company using this opportunity and gathered sensitive information by scanning terminals for passwords, searching for important documents in desks, and rummaging bins. What is the type of attack technique Ralph used on jane?

A. Dumpster diving

B. Eavesdropping

C. Shoulder surfing

D. impersonation

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Leverox Solutions hired Arnold, a security professional, for the threat intelligence process. Arnold collected information about specific threats against the organization. From this information, he retrieved contextual information about security events and incidents that helped him disclose potential risks and gain insight into attacker methodologies. He collected the information from sources such as humans, social media, and chat rooms as well as from events that resulted in cyberattacks. In this process, he also prepared a report that includes identified malicious activities, recommended courses of action, and warnings for emerging attacks. What is the type of threat intelligence collected by Arnold in the above scenario?

A. Strategic threat intelligence

B. Tactical threat intelligence

C. Operational threat intelligence

D. Technical threat intelligence

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Which tool can be used to silently copy files from USB devices?

A. USB Grabber

B. USB Snoopy

C. USB Sniffer

D. Use Dumper

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

Which of the following algorithms can be used to guarantee the integrity of messages being sent, in transit, or stored?

A. symmetric algorithms

B. asymmetric algorithms

C. hashing algorithms

D. integrity algorithms

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Don, a student, came across a gaming app in a third-party app store and Installed it. Subsequently, all the legitimate apps in his smartphone were replaced by deceptive applications that appeared legitimate. He also received many advertisements on his smartphone after Installing the app. What is the attack performed on Don in the above scenario?

A. SMS phishing attack

B. SIM card attack

C. Agent Smith attack

D. Clickjacking

Correct Answer: D

Clickjacking is an attack that tricks a user into clicking a webpage element which is invisible or disguised as another element. this will cause users to unwittingly download malware, visit malicious sites , provide credentials or sensitive information, transfer money, or purchase products online.Typically, clickjacking is performed by displaying an invisible page or HTML element, inside an iframe, on top of the page the user sees. The user believes they\’re clicking the visible page but actually they\’re clicking an invisible element within the additional page transposed on top of it.The invisible page might be a malicious page, or a legitimate page the user didn\’t shall visit ?for instance , a page on the user\’s banking site that authorizes the transfer of cash .There are several variations of the clickjacking attack, such as: Likejacking a way during which the Facebook “Like” button is manipulated, causing users to “like” a page they really didn\’t shall like. Cursorjacking a UI redressing technique that changes the cursor for the position the user perceives to a different position. Cursorjacking relies on vulnerabilities in Flash and therefore the Firefox browser, which have now been fixed. Clickjacking attack example1. The attacker creates a beautiful page which promises to offer the user a free trip to Tahiti.2. within the background the attacker checks if the user is logged into his banking site and if so, loads the screen that permits transfer of funds, using query parameters to insert the attacker\’s bank details into the shape .3. The bank transfer page is displayed in an invisible iframe above the free gift page, with the “Confirm Transfer” button exactly aligned over the “Receive Gift” button visible to the user.4. The user visits the page and clicks the “Book My Free Trip” button.5. actually the user is clicking on the invisible iframe, and has clicked the “Confirm Transfer” button. Funds are transferred to the attacker.6. The user is redirected to a page with information about the free gift (not knowing what happened within the background). This example illustrates that, during a clickjacking attack, the malicious action (on the bank website, during this case) can\’t be traced back to the attacker because the user performed it while being legitimately signed into their own account. Clickjacking mitigationThere are two general ways to defend against clickjacking: Client- side methods the foremost common is named Frame Busting. Client-side methods are often effective in some cases, but are considered to not be a best practice, because they will be easily bypassed. Server-side methods the foremost common is X-Frame-Options. Server-side methods are recommended by security experts as an efficient thanks to defend against clickjacking.


Question 13:

Bob, your senior colleague, has sent you a mail regarding a deal with one of the clients. You are requested to accept the offer and you oblige. After 2 days, Bab denies that he had ever sent a mail. What do you want to “”know”” to prove yourself that it was Bob who had send a mail?

A. Non-Repudiation

B. Integrity

C. Authentication

D. Confidentiality

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

John, a disgruntled ex-employee of an organization, contacted a professional hacker to exploit the organization. In the attack process, the professional hacker Installed a scanner on a machine belonging to one of the vktims and scanned several machines on the same network to Identify vulnerabilities to perform further exploitation. What is the type of vulnerability assessment tool employed by John in the above scenario?

A. Proxy scanner

B. Agent-based scanner

C. Network-based scanner

D. Cluster scanner

Correct Answer: B

Knowing when to include agents into your vulnerability management processes isn\’t an easy decision. Below are common use cases for agent-based vulnerability scanning to assist you build out your combined scanning strategy. Intermittent or Irregular Connectivity: Vulnerability management teams are now tasked with scanning devices that access the company network remotely using public or home-based Wi-Fi connections. These connections are often unreliable and intermittent leading to missed network-based scans. Fortunately, the scanning frequency of agents doesn\’t require a network connection. The agent detects when the device is back online, sending scan data when it\’s ready to communicate with the VM platform. Connecting Non-Corporate Devices to Corporate Networks:With the increased use of private devices, company networks are more exposed to malware and infections thanks to limited IT and security teams\’ control and visibility. Agent-based scanning gives security teams insight into weaknesses on non-corporate endpoints, keeping them informed about professional hacker is potential attack vectors in order that they can take appropriate action. Endpoints Residing Outside of Company Networks: Whether company-issued or BYOD, remote assets frequently hook up with the web outside of traditional network bounds. An agent that resides on remote endpoints conducts regular, authenticated scans checking out system changes and unpatched software. The results are then sent back to the VM platform and combined with other scan results for review, prioritization, and mitigation planning.


Question 15:

Gerard, a disgruntled ex-employee of Sunglass IT Solutions, targets this organization to perform sophisticated attacks and bring down its reputation in the market. To launch the attacks process, he performed DNS footprinting to gather information about ONS servers and to identify the hosts connected in the target network. He used an automated tool that can retrieve information about DNS zone data including DNS domain names, computer names. IP addresses. DNS records, and network Who is records. He further exploited this information to launch other sophisticated attacks. What is the tool employed by Gerard in the above scenario?

A. Knative

B. zANTI

C. Towelroot

D. Bluto

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

The receive end performs BIP-8 check for the unscrambled STM-16 frame. If the BIP-8 check result XOR the value of the B1 byte contained in the following STM-16 frame is 10001100, it indicates that () bit error blocks exist in the STM-16 frame.

A. 5

B. 3

C. 6

D. Unclear

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

The EPL service exclusively uses bandwidth on the line, which is highly secure. It is applicable to the private line application of VIP customers.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which of the following statements about clock sources is incorrect?

A. Internal clock sources have the lowest priority because of their low precision.

B. Generally, tributary clocks are not used as the clock sources of devices.

C. The same SSM protocol is selected for all NEs in a clock protection subnet.

D. If the standard SSM protocol is enabled, you need to set the clock source ID.

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which of the following methods can be used to multiplex lower-order ODUk to higher-order ODUk?

A. Time division multiplexing

B. Wavelength division multiplexing

C. Space division multiplexing

D. Frequency division multiplexing

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which of the following can be the center wavelengths of the pump sources in an EDFA? (Multiple Choice)

A. 980 nm

B. 1510 nm

C. 1480 nm

D. 1310 nm

Correct Answer: AC


Question 6:

Which of the following are communication quality alarms? (Multiple Choice)

A. Optical port loopback

B. No login of an NE user

C. NE communication interruption

D. Loss of optical signals

Correct Answer: CD


Question 7:

LCK insertion has priority over AIS insertion. That is, if a user configures LCK insertion and the conditions of automatic AIS insertion are met, LCK is inserted.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which of the following is not the advantage of WDM?

A. Ultra-large capacity and transparent data transmission

B. Easy to upgrade and maximizing the protection for existing investments

C. Completely substituting for SDH devices

D. Compatible with all optical switching networks in the future

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A MAC address consists of 48 bits and is globally unique. Which of the following is the meaning of the MAC address whose eighth bit is 1?

A. Unicast address

B. Bicast address

C. Multicast address

D. Broadcast address

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

SES: There are 5% or more than 5% bit error blocks or at least one defect (OCI/AIS/LCKAAE/LTCA1M/PLM) within one second.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Which of the following statements about an MSP ring are correct? (Multiple Choice)

A. The number of nodes on an MSP ring cannot exceed 16.

B. When creating a protection subnet, select SDH NEs only. Do not select REG or WDM NEs.

C. When multiple protection subnets occupy the same port on the same board, you must select “Resource Sharing”.

D. “Assigned by VC4” means that different VC4s are assigned to different protection subnets to achieve MSP only in some channels.

Correct Answer: ABCD


Question 12:

The 1310 nm and 1550 nm transmission windows are low-loss windows. In DWDM systems, only the 1550 nm transmission window is used. Which of the following is the major cause?

A. The working wavelength flatness area of the EDFA is included in this window.

B. The non-linear effect of the 1550 nm wavelength area is small.

C. The 1550 nm wavelength area is applicable to long-haul transmission.

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

The pointer is used for alignment and indicates the start position of VC-n in the corresponding AU or TU frame. In this way, the receive end can correctly remove the corresponding VC from the STM-N, and then split the VC and C encapsulation to separate low-rate signals, such as PDH. That is, low-rate tributary signals can be directly dropped from the STM-N signal.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

OChr means that the electrical supervisory technology is used.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

By default, the B2-EXC alarm is reported when the number of B2 bit errors exceeds the ( ) threshold.

A. 0.000000001

B. 0.00001

C. 0.001

D. 0.01

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer is deploying Guest Self-Registration with Sponsor Approval but does not like the format of the sponsor email. Where can you change the sponsor email?

A. in the Receipt Page – Actions

B. in the Sponsor Confirmation section

C. in me Configuration – Receipts – Email Receipts

D. in the Configuration – Receipts – Templates

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

While configuring a guest solution, the customer is requesting that guest user receive access for four hours from their first login. Which Guest Account Expiration would you select?

A. expire_after

B. do_expire

C. expire_time

D. expire_ postlogin

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer has configured the Aruba Controller for administrative authentication using ClearPass as a TACACS server. During testing, the read-only user is getting the root access role. What could be a possible reason for this behavior? (Select two.)

A. The Controllers Admin Authentication Options Default role is mapped to toot.

B. The ClearPass user role associated to the read-only user is wrong

C. The Controller Server Group Match Rules are changing the user role

D. The read-only enforcement profile is mapped to the root role

E. On the Controller, the TACAC$ authentication server Is not configured for Session authorization

Correct Answer: CE


Question 4:

You have recently implemented a serf-registration portal in ClearPass Guest to be used on a Guest SSID broadcast from an Aruba controller. Your customer has started complaining that the users are not able to reliably access the internet after clicking the login button on the receipt page. They tell you that the users will click the login button multiple times and alter about a minute they gain access. What could be causing this issue?

A. The self-registration page is configured with a 1 minute login delay.

B. The guest client is delayed getting an IP address from the DHCP server.

C. The guest users are assigned a firewall user role that has a rate limit.

D. The enforcement profile on ClearPass is set up with an lETF:session delay.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit:

A year ago, your customer deployed an Aruba ClearPass Policy Manager Server for a Guest SSIC hosted in an IAP Cluster. The customer just created a new Web Login Page for the Guest SSID. Even though the previous Web Login page worked test with the new Web Login Page are falling and the customer has

forwarded you the above screenshots.

What recommendation would you give the customer to tix the issue?

A. The service type configured is not correct. The Guest authentication should De an Application authentication type of service.

B. The customer should reset the password tor the username [email protected] com using Guest Manage Accounts

C. The Address filed under the WebLogin Vendor settings is not configured correctly, it should be set to instant arubanetworks.com

D. The WebLogin Pre-Auth Check is set to Aruba Application Authentication which requires a separate application service on the policy manager

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer has configured Onboard and Windows devices work as expected but cannot get the Apple iOS devices to Onboard successfully. Where would you look to troubleshoot the Issued (Select two)

A. Check if the ClearPass HTTPS server certificate installed in the server is issued by a trusted commercial certificate authority.

B. Check if the customer installed the internal PKl Root certificate presented by the ClearPass during the provisioning process.

C. Check if a DNS entry is available for the ClearPass hostname in the certificate, resolvable from the DNS server assigned to the client.

D. Check if the customer has Instated a custom HTTPS certificate for IDS and another internal PKl HTTPS certificate for other devices.

E. Check if the customer has installed the same internal PKl signed RADIUS server certificate as the HTTPS server certificate.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer has configured onboard in a cluster with two nodes All devices were onboarded in the network through node1 but those clients tail to authenticate through node2 with the error shown. What steps would you suggest to make provisioning and authentication work across the entire cluster? (Select three.)

A. Have all of the BYOD clients re-run the Onboard process

B. Configure the Onboard Root CA to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate root.

C. Have all of the BYOD clients disconnect and reconnect to me network

D. Make sure that the EAP certificates on both nodes are issued by one common root Certificate Authority (CA).

E. Make sure that the HTTPS certificate on both nodes is issued as a Code Signing certificate

F. Configure the Network Settings in Onboard to trust the Policy Manager EAP certificate

Correct Answer: BDF


Question 8:

What is the Open SSID (otherwise referred to as Dual SSID) Onboard deployment service workflow?

A. OnBoard Pre-Auth Application service, OnBoard Authorization Application service. OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service

B. OnBoard Pre-Auth RADIUS service. OnBoard Authorization Application service. OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service

C. OnBoard Authorization Application service, OnBoard Pre-Auth Application service, OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service

D. OnBoard Authorization RADIUS service, OnBoard Pre-Auth Application service, OnBoard Provisioning RADIUS service

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A customer has completed all the required configurations in the Windows server in order for Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) to sign Onboard device TLS certificates. The Onboard portal and the Onboard services are also configured. Testing shows that the Client certificates ate still signed by the Onboard Certificate Authority and not ADCS. How can you help the customer with the situation?

A. Educate the customer that, when integrating with Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) the Onboard CA will the same authority used for signing me final TLS certificate of the device.

B. Configure the identity certificate signer as Active Directory Certificate Services and enter the ADCS URL http://ADCSVVeoEnrollmentServemostname/certsrv in the OnBoard Provisioning settings.

C. Enable access to EST servers from the Certificate Authority to make ClearPass Onboard to use of the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) web enrollment to sign the device TLS certificates.

D. Enable access to SCEP servers from the Certificate Authority to make ClearPass Onboard to use of the Active Directory Certificate Services (ADCS) web enrollment to sign the device TLS certificates.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit:

A customer has just configured a Posture Policy and the T2-Healthcheck Service. Next they installed the

OnGuard Agent on Secure_Employee SSID. When they check Access Tracker they see many WEBAUTH

requests are being triggered.

What could be the reason?

A. OnGuard Web-Based Health Check interval has been wrongly configured to three minutes.

B. The OnGuard Agent trigger the events based on changing the Health Status

C. TCP port 6658 is not allowed between the client and the ClearPass server

D. The OnGuard Agent is connecting to the Data Port interface on ClearPass

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit: You have configured Onboard but me customer could not onboard one of his devices and has sent you the above screenshots. How could you resolve the issue?

A. Instruct the user to delete the profile on one of their other BYOD devices.

B. Instruct the user to run the Quick connect application in Sponsor Mode.

C. Increase the maximum number of devices allowed by the individual user account.

D. Increase the maximum number of devices that all users can provision to 3.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Refer to the Exhibit:

A customer wants to integrate posture validation into an Aruba Wireless 802.1X authentication service

During testing, the client connects to the Aruba Employee Secure SSID and is redirected to the Captive Portal page where the user can download the OnGuard Agent After the Agent is installed, the client receives the Healthy token the client remains connected to the Captive Portal page ClearPass is assigning the endpoint the following roles: T2-Staff-User. (Machine Authenticated! and T2-SOL-Device. What could cause this behavior?

A. The Enforcement Policy conditions for rule 1 are not configured correctly.

B. Used Cached Results: has not been enabled In the Aruba 802.1X Wireless Service

C. RFC-3576 Is not configured correctly on the Aruba Controller and does not update the role.

D. The Enforcement Profile should bounce the connection instead of a Terminate session

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

When is it recommended to use a certificate with multiple entries on the Subject Alternative Name?

A. The ClearPass servers are placed in different OnGuard zones to allow the client agent to send SHV updates.

B. Using the same certificate to Onboard clients and the Guest Captive Portal on a single ClearPass server.

C. The primary authentication server Is not available to authenticate the users.

D. The ClearPass server will be hosting captive portal pages for multiple FQDN entries

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

A customer has created a Guest Sett-Registration page that they would like to use it as `template\’ for all the new pages that are going to be created from now on. Their goal is to ensure that the header and footer on every page are the same, and any edits made to them are automatically reflected on every Self-Registration Page. What should be configured in order to accomplish this request?

A. Save the “template” page as Master Self-Registration page

B. Create child pages when creating new Self-Registration pages and select the “template” as Parent

C. Save this “template” page as a new Skin to be used on other Self-Registration pages

D. Copy the “template” page and edit it each time a new Self-Registration Page is needed

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

How does the RadSec improve the RADIUS message exchange? (Select two.)

A. It can be used on an unsecured network or the Internet.

B. It builds a TTLS tunnel between the NAD and ClearPass.

C. Only the NAD needs to trust the ClearPass Certificate.

D. It encrypts the entire RADIUS message.

E. It uses UDP to exchange the radius packets.

Correct Answer: DE


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Question 1:

Your company policies require encryption of sensitive data at rest. You are considering the possible options for protecting data while storing it at rest on an EBS data volume, attached to an EC2 instance.

Which of these options would allow you to encrypt your data at rest? (Choose three.)

A. Implement third party volume encryption tools

B. Implement SSL/TLS for all services running on the server

C. Encrypt data inside your applications before storing it on EBS

D. Encrypt data using native data encryption drivers at the file system level

E. Do nothing as EBS volumes are encrypted by default

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 2:

A customer is deploying an SSL enabled web application to AWS and would like to implement a separation of roles between the EC2 service administrators that are entitled to login to instances as well as making API calls and the security officers who will maintain and have exclusive access to the application\’s X.509 certificate that contains the private key.

A. Upload the certificate on an S3 bucket owned by the security officers and accessible only by EC2 Role of the web servers.

B. Configure the web servers to retrieve the certificate upon boot from an CloudHSM is managed by the security officers.

C. Configure system permissions on the web servers to restrict access to the certificate only to the authority security officers

D. Configure IAM policies authorizing access to the certificate store only to the security officers and terminate SSL on an ELB.

Correct Answer: D

You\’ll terminate the SSL at ELB. and the web request will get unencrypted to the EC2 instance, even if the certs are stored in S3, it has to be configured on the web servers or load balancers somehow, which becomes difficult if the keys are stored in S3. However, keeping the keys in the cert store and using IAM to restrict access gives a clear separation of concern between security officers and developers. Developer\’s personnel can still configure SSL on ELB without actually handling the keys.


Question 3:

You have recently joined a startup company building sensors to measure street noise and air quality in urban areas. The company has been running a pilot deployment of around 100 sensors for 3 months each sensor uploads 1KB of sensor

data every minute to a backend hosted on AWS.

During the pilot, you measured a peak or 10 IOPS on the database, and you stored an average of 3GB of sensor data per month in the database. The current deployment consists of a load-balanced auto scaled Ingestion layer using EC2

instances and a PostgreSQL RDS database with 500GB standard storage. The pilot is considered a success and your CEO has managed to get the attention or some potential investors. The business plan requires a deployment of at least

100K sensors which needs to be supported by the backend. You also need to store sensor data for at least two years to be able to compare year over year Improvements.

To secure funding, you have to make sure that the platform meets these requirements and leaves room for further scaling.

Which setup win meet the requirements?

A. Add an SQS queue to the ingestion layer to buffer writes to the RDS instance

B. Ingest data into a DynamoDB table and move old data to a Redshift cluster

C. Replace the RDS instance with a 6 node Redshift cluster with 96TB of storage

D. Keep the current architecture but upgrade RDS storage to 3TB and 10K provisioned IOPS

Correct Answer: C

The POC solution is being scaled up by 1000, which means it will require 72TB of Storage to retain 24 months\’ worth of data. This rules out RDS as a possible DB solution which leaves you with Redshift.

I believe DynamoDB is a more cost effective and scales better for ingest rather than using EC2 in an auto scaling group.

Also, this example solution from AWS is somewhat similar for reference.


Question 4:

A web company is looking to implement an intrusion detection and prevention system into their deployed VPC. This platform should have the ability to scale to thousands of instances running inside of the VPC.

How should they architect their solution to achieve these goals?

A. Configure an instance with monitoring software and the elastic network interface (ENI) set to promiscuous mode packet sniffing to see an traffic across the VPC.

B. Create a second VPC and route all traffic from the primary application VPC through the second VPC where the scalable virtualized IDS/IPS platform resides.

C. Configure servers running in the VPC using the host-based \’route\’ commands to send all traffic through the platform to a scalable virtualized IDS/IPS.

D. Configure each host with an agent that collects all network traffic and sends that traffic to the IDS/IPS platform for inspection.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A company is storing data on Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3). The company\’s security policy mandates that data is encrypted at rest.

Which of the following methods can achieve this? (Choose three.)

A. Use Amazon S3 server-side encryption with AWS Key Management Service managed keys.

B. Use Amazon S3 server-side encryption with customer-provided keys.

C. Use Amazon S3 server-side encryption with EC2 key pair.

D. Use Amazon S3 bucket policies to restrict access to the data at rest.

E. Encrypt the data on the client-side before ingesting to Amazon S3 using their own master key.

F. Use SSL to encrypt the data while in transit to Amazon S3.

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/UsingKMSEncryption.html


Question 6:

Your firm has uploaded a large amount of aerial image data to S3. In the past, in your on-premises environment, you used a dedicated group of servers to oaten process this data and used Rabbit MQ – An open source messaging system to get job information to the servers. Once processed the data would go to tape and be shipped offsite. Your manager told you to stay with the current design, and leverage AWS archival storage and messaging services to minimize cost.

Which is correct?

A. Use SQS for passing job messages use Cloud Watch alarms to terminate EC2 worker instances when they become idle. Once data is processed, change the storage class of the S3 objects to Reduced Redundancy Storage.

B. Setup Auto-Scaled workers triggered by queue depth that use spot instances to process messages in SOS Once data is processed, change the storage class of the S3 objects to Reduced Redundancy Storage.

C. Setup Auto-Scaled workers triggered by queue depth that use spot instances to process messages in SQS Once data is processed, change the storage class of the S3 objects to Glacier.

D. Use SNS to pass job messages use Cloud Watch alarms to terminate spot worker instances when they become idle. Once data is processed, change the storage class of the S3 object to Glacier.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

You\’ve been hired to enhance the overall security posture for a very large e-commerce site. They have a well architected multi-tier application running in a VPC that uses ELBs in front of both the web and the app tier with static assets served directly from S3. They are using a combination of RDS and DynamoDB for their dynamic data and then archiving nightly into S3 for further processing with EMR. They are concerned because they found questionable log entries and suspect someone is attempting to gain unauthorized access.

Which approach provides a cost effective scalable mitigation to this kind of attack?

A. Recommend that they lease space at a DirectConnect partner location and establish a 1G DirectConnect connection to their VPC they would then establish Internet connectivity into their space, filter the traffic in hardware Web Application Firewall (WAF). And then pass the traffic through the DirectConnect connection into their application running in their VPC.

B. Add previously identified hostile source IPs as an explicit INBOUND DENY NACL to the web tier subnet.

C. Add a WAF tier by creating a new ELB and an AutoScaling group of EC2 Instances running a host-based WAF. They would redirect Route 53 to resolve to the new WAF tier ELB. The WAF tier would their pass the traffic to the current web tier The web tier Security Groups would be updated to only allow traffic from the WAF tier Security Group

D. Remove all but TLS 1.2 from the web tier ELB and enable Advanced Protocol Filtering. This will enable the ELB itself to perform WAF functionality.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Your company is in the process of developing a next generation pet collar that collects biometric information to assist families with promoting healthy lifestyles for their pets. Each collar will push 30kb of biometric data in JSON format every 2 seconds to a collection platform that will process and analyze the data providing health trending information back to the pet owners and veterinarians via a web portal. Management has tasked you to architect the collection platform ensuring the following requirements are met.

1.

Provide the ability for real-time analytics of the inbound biometric data

2.

Ensure processing of the biometric data is highly durable. Elastic and parallel

3.

The results of the analytic processing should be persisted for data mining

Which architecture outlined below win meet the initial requirements for the collection platform?

A. Utilize S3 to collect the inbound sensor data analyze the data from S3 with a daily scheduled Data Pipeline and save the results to a Redshift Cluster.

B. Utilize Amazon Kinesis to collect the inbound sensor data, analyze the data with Kinesis clients and save the results to a Redshift cluster using EMR.

C. Utilize SQS to collect the inbound sensor data analyze the data from SQS with Amazon Kinesis and save the results to a Microsoft SQL Server RDS instance.

D. Utilize EMR to collect the inbound sensor data, analyze the data from EUR with Amazon Kinesis and save me results to DynamoDB.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

You are designing Internet connectivity for your VPC. The Web servers must be available on the Internet. The application must have a highly available architecture.

Which alternatives should you consider? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a NAT instance in your VPC. Create a default route via the NAT instance and associate it with all subnets. Configure a DNS A record that points to the NAT instance public IP address.

B. Configure a CloudFront distribution and configure the origin to point to the private IP addresses of your Web servers. Configure a Route53 CNAME record to your CloudFront distribution.

C. Place all your web servers behind ELB. Configure a Route53 CNMIE to point to the ELB DNS name.

D. Assign EIPs to all web servers. Configure a Route53 record set with all EIPs, with health checks and DNS failover.

E. Configure ELB with an EIP. Place all your Web servers behind ELB. Configure a Route53 A record that points to the EIP.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 10:

Your team has a tomcat-based Java application you need to deploy into development, test and production environments. After some research, you opt to use Elastic Beanstalk due to its tight integration with your developer tools and RDS due to its ease of management. Your QA team lead points out that you need to roll a sanitized set of production data into your environment on a nightly basis. Similarly, other software teams in your org want access to that same restored data via their EC2 instances in your VPC.

The optimal setup for persistence and security that meets the above requirements would be the following.

A. Create your RDS instance as part of your Elastic Beanstalk definition and alter its security group to allow access to it from hosts in your application subnets.

B. Create your RDS instance separately and add its IP address to your application\’s DB connection strings in your code Alter its security group to allow access to it from hosts within your VPC\’s IP address block.

C. Create your RDS instance separately and pass its DNS name to your app\’s DB connection string as an environment variable. Create a security group for client machines and add it as a valid source for DB traffic to the security group of the RDS instance itself.

D. Create your RDS instance separately and pass its DNS name to your\’s DB connection string as an environment variable Alter its security group to allow access to It from hosts in your application subnets.

Correct Answer: A

Elastic Beanstalk provides support for running Amazon RDS instances in your Elastic Beanstalk environment. This works great for development and testing environments, but is not ideal for a production environment because it ties the lifecycle of the database instance to the lifecycle of your application\’s environment. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/elasticbeanstalk/latest/dg/AWSHowTo.RDS.html


Question 11:

Your company has an on-premises multi-tier PHP web application, which recently experienced downtime due to a large burst in web traffic due to a company announcement Over the coming days, you are expecting similar announcements to drive similar unpredictable bursts, and are looking to find ways to quickly improve your infrastructures ability to handle unexpected increases in traffic. The application currently consists of 2 tiers a web tier which consists of a load balancer and several Linux Apache web servers as well as a database tier which hosts a Linux server hosting a MySQL database.

Which scenario below will provide full site functionality, while helping to improve the ability of your application in the short timeframe required?

A. Failover environment: Create an S3 bucket and configure it for website hosting. Migrate your DNS to Route53 using zone file import, and leverage Route53 DNS failover to failover to the S3 hosted website.

B. Hybrid environment: Create an AMI, which can be used to launch web servers in EC2. Create an Auto Scaling group, which uses the AMI to scale the web tier based on incoming traffic. Leverage Elastic Load Balancing to balance traffic between on-premises web servers and those hosted in AWS.

C. Offload traffic from on-premises environment: Setup a CIoudFront distribution, and configure CloudFront to cache objects from a custom origin. Choose to customize your object cache behavior, and select a TTL that objects should exist in cache.

D. Migrate to AWS: Use VM Import/Export to quickly convert an on-premises web server to an AMI. Create an Auto Scaling group, which uses the imported AMI to scale the web tier based on incoming traffic. Create an RDS read replica and setup replication between the RDS instance and on-premises MySQL server to migrate the database.

Correct Answer: C

You can have CloudFront sit in front of your on-prem web environment, via a custom origin (the origin doesn\’t have to be in AWS). This would protect against unexpected bursts in traffic by letting CloudFront handle the traffic that it can out of cache, thus hopefully removing some of the load from your on-prem web servers.


Question 12:

You are implementing AWS Direct Connect. You intend to use AWS public service end points such as Amazon S3, across the AWS Direct Connect link. You want other Internet traffic to use your existing link to an Internet Service Provider.

What is the correct way to configure AWS Direct connect for access to services such as Amazon S3?

A. Configure a public Interface on your AWS Direct Connect link. Configure a static route via your AWS Direct Connect link that points to Amazon S3 Advertise a default route to AWS using BGP.

B. Create a private interface on your AWS Direct Connect link. Configure a static route via your AWS Direct connect link that points to Amazon S3 Configure specific routes to your network in your VPC.

C. Create a public interface on your AWS Direct Connect link. Redistribute BGP routes into your existing routing infrastructure; advertise specific routes for your network to AWS.

D. Create a private interface on your AWS Direct connect link. Redistribute BGP routes into your existing routing infrastructure and advertise a default route to AWS.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/directconnect/faqs/


Question 13:

Your application is using an ELB in front of an Auto Scaling group of web/application servers deployed across two AZs and a Multi-AZ RDS Instance for data persistence. The database CPU is often above 80% usage and 90% of I/O operations on the database are reads. To improve performance you recently added a single-node Memcached ElastiCache Cluster to cache frequent DB query results. In the next weeks the overall workload is expected to grow by 30%.

Do you need to change anything in the architecture to maintain the high availability or the application with the anticipated additional load? Why?

A. Yes, you should deploy two Memcached ElastiCache Clusters in different AZs because the RDS instance will not be able to handle the load if the cache node fails.

B. No, if the cache node fails you can always get the same data from the DB without having any availability impact.

C. No, if the cache node fails the automated ElastiCache node recovery feature will prevent any availability impact.

D. Yes, you should deploy the Memcached ElastiCache Cluster with two nodes in the same AZ as the RDS DB master instance to handle the load if one cache node fails.

Correct Answer: A

ElastiCache for Memcached The primary goal of caching is typically to offload reads from your database or other primary data source. In most apps, you have hot spots of data that are regularly queried, but only updated periodically. Think of the front page of a blog or news site, or the top 100 leaderboard in an online game. In this type of case, your app can receive dozens, hundreds, or even thousands of requests for the same data before it\’s updated again. Having your caching layer handle these queries has several advantages. First, it\’s considerably cheaper to add an in-memory cache than to scale up to a larger database cluster. Second, an in-memory cache is also easier to scale out, because it\’s easier to distribute an in-memory cache horizontally than a relational database. Last, a caching layer provides a request buffer in the event of a sudden spike in usage. If your app or game ends up on the front page of Reddit or the App Store, it\’s not unheard of to see a spike that is 10 to 100 times your normal application load. Even if you autoscale your application instances, a 10x request spike will likely make your database very unhappy. Let\’s focus on ElastiCache for Memcached first, because it is the best fit for a cachingfocused solution. We\’ll revisit Redis later in the paper, and weigh its advantages and disadvantages. Architecture with ElastiCache for Memcached When you deploy an ElastiCache Memcached cluster, it sits in your application as a separate tier alongside your database. As mentioned previously, Amazon ElastiCache does not directly communicate with your database tier, or indeed have any particular knowledge of your database. A simplified deployment for a web application looks something like this: In this architecture diagram, the Amazon EC2 application instances are in an Auto Scaling group, located behind a load balancer using Elastic Load Balancing, which distributes requests among the instances. As requests come into a given EC2 instance, that EC2 instance is responsible for communicating with ElastiCache and the database tier. For development purposes, you can begin with a single ElastiCache node to test your application, and then scale to additional cluster nodes by modifying the ElastiCache cluster. As you add additional cache nodes, the EC2 application instances are able to distribute cache keys across multiple ElastiCache nodes. The most common practice is to use client-side sharding to distribute keys across cache nodes, which we will discuss later in this paper.

When you launch an ElastiCache cluster, you can choose the Availability Zone(s) that the cluster lives in. For best performance, you should configure your cluster to use the same Availability Zones as your application servers. To launch an ElastiCache cluster in a specific Availability Zone, make sure to specify the Preferred Zone(s) option during cache cluster creation. The Availability Zones that you specify will be where ElastiCache will launch your cache nodes. We recommend that you select Spread Nodes Across Zones, which tells ElastiCache to distribute cache nodes across these zones as evenly as possible. This distribution will mitigate the impact of an Availability Zone disruption on your ElastiCache nodes. The trade-off is that some of the requests from your application to ElastiCache will go to a node in a different Availability Zone, meaning latency will be slightly higher. For more details, refer to Creating a Cache Cluster in the Amazon ElastiCache User Guide. As mentioned at the outset, ElastiCache can be coupled with a wide variety of databases. Here is an example architecture that uses Amazon DynamoDB instead of Amazon RDS and MySQL: This combination of DynamoDB and ElastiCache is very popular with mobile and game companies, because DynamoDB allows for higher write throughput at lower cost than traditional relational databases. In addition, DynamoDB uses a key-value access pattern similar to ElastiCache, which also simplifies the programming model. Instead of using relational SQL for the primary database but then key-value patterns for the cache, both the primary database and cache can be programmed similarly. In this architecture pattern, DynamoDB remains the source of truth for data, but application reads are offloaded to ElastiCache for a speed boost.


Question 14:

An ERP application is deployed across multiple AZs in a single region. In the event of failure, the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) must be less than 3 hours, and the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) must be 15 minutes. The customer realizes that data corruption occurred roughly 1.5 hours ago.

What DR strategy could be used to achieve this RTO and RPO in the event of this kind of failure?

A. Take hourly DB backups to S3, with transaction logs stored in S3 every 5 minutes.

B. Use synchronous database master-slave replication between two availability zones.

C. Take hourly DB backups to EC2 Instance store volumes with transaction logs stored In S3 every 5 minutes.

D. Take 15 minute DB backups stored In Glacier with transaction logs stored in S3 every 5 minutes.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You are designing the network infrastructure for an application server in Amazon VPC. Users will access all application instances from the Internet, as well as from an on-premises network. The on-premises network is connected to your VPC over an AWS Direct Connect link.

How would you design routing to meet the above requirements?

A. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the Internet gateway. Propagate a default route via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing table with all VPC subnets.

B. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the Internet gateway. Propagate specific routes for the on-premises networks via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing table with all VPC subnets.

C. Configure a single routing table with two default routes: on to the Internet via an Internet gateway, the other to the on-premises network via the VPN gateway. Use this routing table across all subnets in the VPC.

D. Configure two routing tables: on that has a default router via the Internet gateway, and other that has a default route via the VPN gateway. Associate both routing tables with each VPC subnet.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Scenario: Rollins Manufacturing

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Rollins Manufacturing is a major supplier in the automotive industry, headquartered in Cleveland, Ohio with manufacturing plants in Chicago, Sao Paulo, Stuttgart, Yokohama, and Seoul. Each of these plants has been operating its own

Manufacturing Requirements Planning (MRPII) system, production scheduling, and custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant.

Rollins is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was determined that a significant reduction

in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current MRPII and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the Cleveland data center. This central system would provide support to each

of the plants replacing the functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some cases, a third-

party contractor could provide those staff.

The Rollins Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature, well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF 9.At a recent meeting, the

Architecture Review Board approved a Request for Architecture Work from the Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations who is the project sponsor. The request covered the initial architectural investigations and the development of

a comprehensive architecture to plan the transformation.

The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some of the plant managers have

expressed concern about the security and reliability of driving their MRPII and production scheduling from a central system located in Cleveland. The Chief Engineer wants to know how these concerns can be addressed.

Refer to the Rollins Manufacturing Scenario:

You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect for the Common ERP Deployment architecture project.

One of the earliest initiatives in the Enterprise Architecture program at Rollins was the definition of a set of IT principles and architecture principles that are well aligned with the overall enterprise principles. These now need to be updated to

address the concerns raised.

You have been asked to select a set of principles most appropriate for guiding the team to define a robust solution.

[Note: You should assume that Rollins has adopted the example set of principles that are listed and defined in TOGAF 9, Section 23.6.]

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. Common-use Applications, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure, Interoperability, Control Technical Diversity.

B. Business Continuity, Service-orientation, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure, Responsive Change Management.

C. Maximize Benefit to the Enterprise, Business Continuity, Common-use Applications, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure.

D. Information Management is Everybody\’s Business, IT Responsibility, Data Trustee, Technology Independence, Responsive Change Management.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Scenario: Global Mobile 1

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Global Mobile is a mobile telecommunications company formed through a series of mergers and acquisitions. They are yet to fully integrate the customer service systems for the most recent acquisitions, and as result, customer service has been a major concern for the Chief Technology Officer.

Results for the last two quarters have shown that Average Revenue Per User (ARPU) and the customer retention (Churn) rate have fallen below the industry average. The Corporate Marketing group has published some new findings about customer satisfaction. The customers appear to be switching to Air Light, a competitor, because of superior customer service. Global Mobile actually has better coverage in nearly all markets than Air Light, and good roaming agreements that keep rates low for business travelers. But, customer satisfaction has remained low.

The Business Strategy group and the Enterprise Architecture group have conducted a high-level project to develop the enterprise-wide strategic plan. They have developed a business scenario which contains a good conceptual model of what needs to be done, and also identifies the key requirements. This was used in preparing the proposal presented to the Executive Council and the Corporate Board.

The planning for the program has been underway for several months. Global Mobile has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture.

The Corporate Board has approved funding for a multi-million Euro conversion to transition to a packaged Customer Service System. It is anticipated that the overall program will take five years to complete, but there are some tactical projects that can commence immediately to address the situation. The Corporate Board has placed one additional major constraint on the program. In addition to achieving the business outcomes directly related to improving overall customer service within each business unit, the Corporate Board expects the Target Architecture to produce an additional saving of at least 30% over current operating costs through energy efficiency initiatives, virtualization of servers and workstations, and expanded telecommuting and desk-sharing. This Green initiative is intended to become a model for future investments at all company facilities worldwide.

Refer to Global Mobile scenario

You have been engaged as a consultant to advise the Chief Architect on the best ways to approach to the implementation planning activities for this significant business transformation.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer? (Is this the right answers to choose?)

A. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The horizontal scope of the Green initiative would make the Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization\’s TOGAF-based Enterprise Architecture framework difficult to manage and govern. This approach to planning was better applied within the vertical scope of a business unit.

B. You recommend that the implementation planning activities be conducted using Capability-Based Planning. This is appropriate because the Green initiative is an enterprise-wide plan with a horizontal scope. Its metrics are aggregated at the enterprise level. It is crucial to gain business unit support and cooperation to achieve the broader business outcomes which will benefit all.

C. The Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization\’s TOGAF-based Enterprise Architecture framework is focused on business outcomes. The Green initiative is an infrastructure program that is technical in nature; therefore, it would not be appropriate to use the Capability-Based Planning approach. Instead, the Global Mobile systems development lifecycle approach should be utilized to develop the Solution Architecture.

D. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The Capability-Based Planning approach is normally only used in public sector, defense-related programs. This approach is not appropriate for a private sector company.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Scenario: Vittronics Ltd.

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Vittronics Ltd. is a leading medical device manufacturer in the highly competitive market for Migraine Headache Pain Management (MHPM) devices. These tiny wireless devices are implanted in the brain and can deliver a precise electric shock when the wearable Pain Control Unit (PCU) detects an increase in stress induced by the onset of a migraine headache.

This technology will be a breakthrough in the treatment of this condition, and several competitors are striving to be the first to introduce a product into the market. However, all of them must demonstrate the effectiveness and safety of their products in a set of clinical trials that will satisfy the regulatory requirements of the countries in the target markets.

The Enterprise Architecture group at Vittronics has been engaged in an architecture development project to create a Secure Private Immersive Collaborative Environment (SPICE) that will allow researchers at its product development laboratories worldwide to share information about their independent clinical trials.

The Vittronics Enterprise Architecture group is a mature organization that has been utilizing TOGAF for several years. They have recently upgraded to TOGAF 9. The Vittronics Architecture Development Method (VADM) is strictly based on the TOGAF 9 Architecture Development Method (ADM) with extensions required to support current good manufacturing practices and good laboratory practices in their target markets.

The SPICE project team has now completed the Business, Information Systems, and Technology Architecture phases and has produced a complete set of deliverables for each phase. Due to the highly sensitive nature of the information that is managed in SPICE, special care was taken to ensure that each architecture domain included an examination of the security and privacy issues that are relevant for each domain. A corresponding SPICE Security Architecture has been defined.

The Executive Vice President for Clinical Research is the sponsor of the Enterprise Architecture activity.

Refer to the Vittronics Ltd Scenario:

You are serving as the Lead Architect for the SPICE project team.

As required by TOGAF, the SPICE project team res completed a Business Transformation Readiness Assessment in Phase A (Architecture Vision). In that assessment, it was determined that there are risks associated with the adoption of the Immersive Collaborative Environment. Despite a clear expression of the vision and the business need for utilizing SPICE to accelerate the clinical trials, the researchers have been resisting the change because of concerns about safeguarding individually identifiable information about the subjects who were participating in the trials.

You have been asked to recommend how this situation be managed in the implementation planning phases.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You decide that in Phase E, the team creates an overall solutions strategy that can guide the Target Architecture implementation and structure the Transition Architectures. You check that there is consensus before proceeding.

B. You decide to return to Phase A, where the team should brainstorm a technical solution that mitigates the residual risks presented by the privacy issue. Then, during Phase D, you will direct the team to develop an Architecture Building Block to manage the security risks. After that, the team should select Solution Building Blocks that mitigate all of the identified risks and revise the Requirements Impact Statement to reflect the changes to the high-level solutions strategy and migration plan.

C. You decide that in Phase E, the team review the Business Transformation Readiness Assessment and identify, classify, and mitigate the risks associated with the identified readiness factors. If the risks can be satisfactorily mitigated, then you would continue to define a high-level solutions strategy that includes the Transition Architectures needed to make the change culturally and technically feasible.

D. You decide that in Phase E, the team determines an approach to implementing an overall strategic direction that will address and mitigate the risks identified.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Scenario: Florian Flowers BV

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Florian Flowers BV is an international agricultural company exporting flowers and seeds worldwide. Florian is headquartered in Rotterdam in the Netherlands, and has sales and distribution centers in over 60 countries worldwide. Several of

these centers include administrative, manufacturing, and research facilities.

To achieve full integration of their research capabilities with their development centers located in various climate zones, Florian wants to develop strong self-directed teams in each location. Florian also wants to define new business models

that are profitable while reducing their impact on the environment. Florian management is deeply committed to ensuring that the company is a world leader in socially responsible seed development with a business strategy that focuses on

profitability through environmentally friendly operating processes.

Florians international operations are subject to various legal and regulatory requirements. In areas such as genetically modified seeds, governmental controls are strictly enforced and compliance is critical. Recently a competitor was heavily

fined for violating the regulations in a country where it was developing pest-resistant seeds.

The Governing Board is concerned, and as a result has approved the expenditure of resources to establish an Enterprise Architecture program. They have requested to be informed about the status of projects that could impact regulatory

compliance. They also want to enable the corporate legal staff and auditors to analyze proposed architectures to ensure that they are within the legal guidelines for a given location. In addition, the research organization should be able to see

that the architecture is appropriate for its needs.

TOGAF 9 has been mandated as the guiding framework for the development and evolution of the Enterprise Architecture practice.

Refer to the Florian Flowers BV Scenario

Florian management has engaged you as the Lead Consultant to assess the current situation.

You have been asked to recommend an approach that would enable the development of an architecture that addresses the needs of all these parties.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. Depending on the nature of the architecture, a set of models should be created that can be used to ensure that the system will be compliant with the local regulations. Stakeholders should be able to view the models to see that their concerns have been properly addressed.

B. Each architecture activity should be developed using a consistent modeling approach that is uniform across all architecture projects. Each architecture should be defined based on this fixed set of models so that all concerned parties can examine the models to ensure that their issues and concerns have been accessed.

C. For those groups that have sufficient power and level of interest, a special report should be created that summarizes the key features of the architecture with respect to the particular location. Each of these reports should reflect the stakeholders\’ requirements.

D. It would be beneficial to develop a stakeholder map that allows the architects to define groups of stakeholders that share common concerns. A set of views should be defined that addresses the concerns each group. Architecture models can then be created for each view to address the stakeholders\’ concerns.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Scenario: Zephyr Enterprises

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

Zephyr Enterprises specializes in the development of wind turbine blades for use in large-scale commercial wind energy production systems. Zephyr has manufacturing facilities located in Palm Springs, California, Omaha, Nebraska, and Winnipeg, Ontario. Each of these plants supplies a different manufacturer that builds and sells complete systems. The turbine blades are custom engineered to meet each manufacturers design specifications.

Until recently, most turbine blades were fabricated manually using molded fiber-reinforced plastics. However, recent improvements in composite materials, coupled with enhanced automated methods for precision application of materials during the molding process, have led to significant reduction in weight, increase in strength, and greatly improved blade longevity. Zephyr has pioneered the development of a proprietary automated process for continuous extrusion of the turbine blades. Patents have been filed to protect the process, but certain trade secrets must be closely guarded.

Zephyr has a mature Enterprise Architecture organization that is supported by a cross-functional Architecture Review Board. The Chief Information Officer and the Chief Operating Officer co-sponsor the Enterprise Architecture program.

Zephyr has used TOGAF and its Architecture Development Method (ADM) to develop its automated manufacturing processes and systems that are used to design, manufacture, and test the blade assemblies. They have recently updated to

TOGAF 9 and have adapted the Zephyr Enterprise Architecture to closely follow the TOGAF 9 framework. All of Zephyrs IT architects have been trained and certified on TOGAF 9.Recently, an architecture project was completed that defined

a standard approach for controlling the Automated Test System that is used at each plant to perform final quality assurance tests on each completed blade assembly. The Manufacturing Architecture Board approved the plan for immediate

implementation at each plant.

An Architecture Contract was developed that detailed the work needed to implement and deploy the new Automated Test System controller. The Chief Engineer, sponsor of the activity, has expressed concern that a uniform process be

employed at each site to ensure consistency.

Refer to the Zephyr Enterprises Scenario:

You have been assigned by the Lead Architect for the Automated Test System controller project to conduct Compliance Assessments at each manufacturing plant.

During the course of the assessment at the Omaha plant, you discover that the Distributed Data Acquisition System they have purchased uses a proprietary Remote Procedure Call (RPC) that utilizes kernel mode threads instead of the user

mode threads that are specified in the Architecture Definition Document. In all other respects, the system meets the requirements stated in the Architecture Definition Document and seems to perform correctly.

You have been asked to describe the compliance of this system for the final report.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You observe that all of the features in the Architecture Definition Document have been implemented in accordance with the specification, except for the RPC mechanism. Your recommendation is that the system be described as conformant.

B. You observe that the system has many features in common with the Architecture Definition Document, and those features have been implemented in accordance with the specification. However, you note that the RPC mechanism has been implemented using features that are not covered by the specification. Your recommendation is that the system be described as consistent.

C. You observe that the implementation of the RPC mechanism has no features in common with the Architecture Definition Document, therefore the question of its conformance should not be considered. Your recommendation is that the system be described as consistent.

D. You observe that the system meets most of the requirements stated in the Architecture Definition Document and appears to work correctly. However, you note that the RPC mechanism has not been implemented according to the specification. Your recommendation is that the system be described as non-conformant.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Worldwide Mobile is a mobile telecommunications company formed through a series of mergers and acquisitions. They are yet to fully integrate the customer service systems for the most recent acquisitions, and as result, customer service has been a major concern for the Chief Technology Officer.

Results for the last two quarters have shown that Average Revenue Per User (ARPU) and the customer retention (Churn) rate have fallen below the industry average. The Corporate Marketing group has published some new finding about customer satisfaction. The customers appear to be switching to Air Light, a competitor, because of superior customer service. WorldwideMobile actually has better coverage in nearly all markets than Air Light, and good roaming agreement that keep rates low for business travellers. But customer satisfaction has remained low. The Business Strategy group and the Enterprise Architecture group have conducted a high-level project to develop the enterprise-wide strategic plan. They have developed a business scenario which contains a good conceptual model of what needs to be done and also identifies the key requirements. This was used in preparing the proposal presented to the Executive Council and the Corporate Board. The planning for the program has been underway for several months. WorldwideMobile has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture. The Corporate Board has approved funding for a multi-million Euro conversion to transition to a packaged Customer Service System. It is anticipated that the overall program will take five years to complete, but there are some tactical projects that can commence immediately to address the situation. The Executive Council has stated that the program should define specific initiatives to enable each regional business units to create an implementation of the Customer Service System. The implementation must meet the needs of the business unit and still provide the information needed to enable major improvements to the customer.

Refer to WorldwideMobile-2 Scenario

You are serving as the Lead Architect for the Performance and Integrity project of the Customer Service System program.

The project has been chartered to address the architecture(s) required to support the Customer Service System from an infrastructure perspective. At present time, the project team is conducting an architecture development project that is

focused on the customer self service capability, which was defined as part of the earlier strategic planning activities. This capability will enable customers to access their accounts, pay bills, request account reviews, and provision services

from any web-enabled device.

The project team has gathered information about the self-service capability, developed a business scenario, and used the results to define an Architecture Vision for achieving the capability.

You have been asked to recommend the course of action to complete the project.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is best answer?

A. In the remaining architecture definition phases, the project team should map out the capability in the Technology domain. In the Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of Solution Building Blocks that define the Target Architecture. Where possible, the Solution Building Blocks should be drawn from the Architecture Repository. The completed Architecture Definition Document and the Implementation and Migration Plan will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the architecture team will conduct Compliance Assessments to ensure that the Target Architecture is properly implemented.

B. In the remaining architecture definition phases, the project team should map out the capability across the Business, Information System and Technology domains. In the Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of increments that are sequenced into Transition Architectures that will lead to the realization of the Target Architecture. The resulting Solution Building Blocks will then provide the basis for the capability increment solutions. The complete Architecture Definition Document and the Implementation and Migration Plan will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the architecture team will oversee the implementation process through monitoring Architecture Contracts and by conduction Compliance Assessments.

C. In the remaining architecture definition phases, the project team should map out the capability across the Business, Information System and Technology domains. In the Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of increments that defines the Target Architecture. The Solution Building Blocks will provide the basis for the capability increment solutions. The complete Architecture Definition Document and the Implementation and Migration Plan will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the architecture team will oversee the implementation process through monitoring Architecture Contracts and by conducting Compliance Assessments.

D. The remaining architecture definition work should be focused on mapping out the technology and infrastructure capability in the Technology domain. In Phases E and F, the capability should be broken down into a set of Solution Building Blocks that will be implemented to realize the Target Architecture. The Solution Building Blocks will provide the basis for the completed Architecture Definition Document that will be submitted for approval. Upon approval, the implementation team will conduct Compliance Assessments to ensure that the self-service capability is compliant with the overall Enterprise Architecture.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You have been appointed as a consultant to the Lead Enterprise Architect of an international agricultural company that exports bulbs, flowers and seeds worldwide. The company has its headquarters in the Netherlands, and has sales and

distribution centers in over 30 countries worldwide. Several of these centers include administrative, manufacturing, and research facilities.

To achieve full integration of their research capabilities with their development centers located in various climate zones, the company wants to develop strong self-directed teams in each location. It also wants to define new business models

that are profitable while reducing their impact on the environment. The management team is deeply committed to ensuring that the company is a world leader in socially responsible seed development with a business strategy that focuses on

profitability through environmentally friendly operating processes.

The international operations of the company are subject to legal and regulatory requirements for each country where they operate. The production of genetically modified seeds has governmental controls that are strictly enforced and

compliance is critical. Recently a competitor was heavily fined for violating the regulations in a country where it was developing pest-resistant seeds.

The Governing Board is concerned about the risks posed in this complex global environment, and as a result has approved the expenditure of resources to establish an Enterprise Architecture program. They have requested to be informed

about the status of projects that could impact regulatory compliance. They also want to enable the corporate legal staff and auditors to analyze proposed architectures to ensure that they are within the legal guidelines for a given location. In

addition, the research organization should be able to see that the architecture is appropriate for its needs.

TOGAF 9 has been mandated as the framework for the development and evolution of the Enterprise Architecture practice. The Preliminary Phase has been completed to establish the enterprise architecture capability for this project.

Refer to the Scenario

You have been asked to recommend an approach that would enable the development of an architecture that addresses the needs of the Governing Board, legal staff, auditors and the research organization.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You recommend that each project architecture activity is developed using a consistent modeling approach that is uniform across all architecture projects. Each architecture should be defined based on this fixed set of models so that all concerned parties can examine the models to ensure that their issues and concerns have been addressed.

B. You recommend that a special report be created for those groups that have sufficient power and level of interest. This report should summarize the key features of the architecture with respect to the particular location. Each of these reports should reflect the stakeholders1 requirements.

C. You recommend that a set of models be created for each project architecture that can be used to ensure that the system will be compliant with the local regulations. Stakeholders should then view the models to verify that their concerns have been properly addressed.

D. You recommend that a stakeholder map be developed. This will allow the architects to define groups of stakeholders that share common concerns. A set of views should be defined to address the concerns for each group of stakeholders. Architecture models should then be created for each view to address the stakeholders\’ concerns.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

You are the Lead Enterprise Architect in a company that specializes in the development of wind turbine blades for use in large-scale commercial wind energy production systems. The company has manufacturing facilities located in Illinois,

Nebraska, and Manitoba. Each of these plants supplies a different manufacturer that builds and sells complete systems. The turbine blades are custom engineered to meet each manufacturer\’s design specifications.

Until recently, most turbine blades were fabricated manually using molded fiber-reinforced plastics. However, recent improvements in composite materials, coupled with enhanced automated methods for precision application of materials

during the molding process, have led to significant reduction in weight, increase in strength, and improved blade longevity. The company has pioneered the development of a proprietary automated process for continuous extrusion of the

turbine blades. Patents have been filed to protect the process, but certain trade secrets must be closely guarded.

The company has a mature Enterprise Architecture organization that is supported by a cross-functional Architecture Board. The Chief Information Officer and the Chief Operating Officer co-sponsor the Enterprise Architecture program.

TOGAF 9 and its Architecture Development Method (ADM) are used to develop the automated manufacturing processes and systems that are used to design, manufacture, and test the blade assemblies.

Recently, a pilot architecture project was completed at a single location that defined a standard approach for controlling the Automated Test System that is used at each plant to perform final quality assurance tests on each completed blade

assembly. The Architecture Board approved the plan for immediate implementation at each plant.

Architecture Contracts have been developed that detail the work needed to implement and deploy the new Automated Test System controller for each location. The Chief Engineer, sponsor of the activity, has expressed concern that a uniform

process be employed at each location to ensure consistency.

Refer to the Scenario

You have been asked to recommend the best approach to address the Chief Engineer\’s concern.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You review the applicable Architecture Contract for each location, ensuring that it addresses the project objectives, effectiveness metrics, acceptance criteria, and risk management. In cases where the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a legally enforceable contract. You schedule compliance reviews at key points in the implementation process to ensure that the work is proceeding in accordance with the Architecture Definition. You ensure that the Architecture Board reviews all deviations from the Architecture Contract, and considers whether or not to grant a dispensation to allow the implementation organization to customize the process to meet their local needs.

B. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process at each location. For internal development projects, you issue a memorandum of understanding between the Architecture Board and the implementation organization. For contracts issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. You ensure that the Architecture Board reviews all deviations from the Architecture Contract, and considers whether or not to grant a dispensation to allow the implementation organization to customize the process to meet their local needs.

C. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process. If the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. For internal development projects, you decide it is adequate to utilize a memorandum of understanding between the Architecture Board and the implementation organization. You recommend that if a deviation from the Architecture Contract is detected, the Architecture Board grant a dispensation to allow the implementation organization the ability to customize the process to meet their local needs.

D. You use the issued Architecture Contracts to manage the architecture governance processes for the project across the locations. You deploy monitoring tools to assess the performance of the completed blade assembly at each location and develop change requirements if necessary. You recommend that if a deviation from the contract is detected, the Architecture Board should modify the Architecture Contract to allow the implementation organization the ability to customize the process to meet their local needs. As a result, you then issue a new Request for Architecture Work to implement the modified Architecture Definition.

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question

You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect at a major supplier in the automotive industry. The company is headquartered in Cleveland, Ohio with manufacturing plants across the United States, Brazil, Germany, Japan and South Korea.

Each of these plants has been operating its own planning and production scheduling systems, as well as custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant.

The company is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was determined that a significant

reduction in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current planning and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the Cleveland data center. This central system would provide

support to each of the plants replacing the functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some

cases, a third-party contractor could provide those staff.

The Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature, well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF 9.

At a recent meeting, the Architecture Board approved a Request for Architecture Work sponsored by the Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations. The request covered the initial architectural investigations and the development of a

comprehensive architecture to plan the transformation.

The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some of the plant managers have

expressed concern about the security and reliability of diving their planning and production scheduling from a remote centralized system. The Chief Engineer wants to know how these concerns can be addressed.

Refer to the Scenario

[Note: You should assume that the company has adopted the example set of principles that are listed and defined in TOGAF 9, Section 23.6.] One of the earliest initiatives in the Enterprise Architecture program was the definition of a set of

architecture principles. These now need to be updated to address the concerns raised.

You have been asked to select a set of principles most appropriate for guiding the team to define a robust solution.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. Common-use Applications, Control Technical Diversity, Ease of Use, Interoperability, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data Security

B. Business Continuity, Common-use Applications, Maximize Benefit to the Enterprise, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data Security

C. Technology Independence, Data Trustee, Information Management is Everybody\’s Business, IT Responsibility, Responsive Change Management

D. Service-orientation, Responsive Change Management, Business Continuity, Data is Accessible, Data Security

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You have been assigned the role of Lead Enterprise Architect for a manufacturing firm that specializes in musical instruments. The firm has been established for over 100 years, operating in North America for most of that time. In the last ten

years, the firm has expanded into European markets and will soon establish a market in Latin America. A future expansion into the Asia Pacific region is also planned.

The firm is organized into several business units that each focus on manufacturing particular families of instruments such as brass, woodwind, and percussion. Each business unit has acquired other producers to expand its manufacturing capacity. This has resulted in a complex environment with a high diversity of business and manufacturing systems. The Enterprise Architecture (EA) program within the firm has been functioning for several years. It has made significant progress in consolidating the technology portfolio and establishing key standards. The CIO and the COO are pint sponsors of the EA program. The EA program is mature, with an active Architecture Board and a well-defined architecture process and standard content templates based on the TOGAF 9 Architecture Content Framework. The EA process framework is well coordinated with the PMO, Systems Development, and Operations functions.

The firm has completed a strategic plan to reorganize its Sales and Marketing organization according to the four target geographic markets. One of the goals of this reorganization is to improve the ability of Marketing to collect more meaningful

market analytics that will enable each sector to better address market needs with effective marketing campaigns and global product presence.

A Request for Architecture Work to address the goals of the reorganization has been approved. As the architecture team commences its work, the CIO has expressed concerns about whether the firm will be able to adapt to the proposed

architecture and how to manage the associated risks.

Refer to the Scenario

You have been asked how to address the concerns of the CIO.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. In Phase B, the team should create a set of views that will enable them to identify the factors that will influence the successful introduction of the architecture into the organization. There should then be an assessment of each factor on a maturity scale that will allow the team to gauge the urgency, readiness, and degree of difficulty to fix. These factors can then be used to assess the initial risks associated with the proposed architecture.

B. In Phase A the team should analyze their risk by completing an Implementation Factor Assessment and Deduction Matrix to identify the particular risks associated with the implementation and deployment. The matrix should include a list of factors to be considered, their descriptions, and constraints that should be taken into account. These factors can then used to assess the initial risks associated with the proposed architecture.

C. In Phase A, the team should use the Business Transformation Readiness Assessment technique to identify the factors that will influence the successful introduction of the architecture into the organization. The assessment should include determining the readiness rating for each factor based on a maturity scale that will allow the team to gauge the urgency, readiness, and degree of difficulty to fix. These factors can then used to assess the initial risks associated with the proposed architecture.

D. In Phase A, the team should conduct a Business Scenario to identify the stakeholders\’ concerns and the resulting retirements. Once the retirements have been identified, they can be assessed in terms of their risks. The risks should be evaluated in terms of how they could be avoided, transferred, or mitigated. Any risks that cannot be resolved should be identified as residual risks and their disposition should be decided by the Architecture Board.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You are the Lead Architect for a firm that manufactures ball bearings used in industrial equipment applications. They have manufacturing operations in several cities in the United States, Germany, and the United Kingdom. The firm has

traditionally allowed each manufacturing plant to drive its own production planning systems. Each plant has its own custom Materials Requirements Planning, Master Production Scheduling, Bill of Materials, and Shop Floor Control systems.

“Just In Time” manufacturing techniques are used to minimize wastes caused by excessive inventory and work in process. The increasingly competitive business environment has compelled the firm to improve its business capability to be

more responsive to the needs of industrial customers. To support this capability, the firm has decided to implement an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) solution that will enable it to better coordinate its manufacturing capacity to match the

demands for its products across all plants. In addition, there are also new European regulations coming into force to which their manufacturing processes must conform in the next six months.

As part of the implementation process, the Enterprise Architecture (EA) department has begun to implement an architecture process based on TOGAF 9. The CIO is the sponsor of the activity. The Chief Architect has directed that the

program should include formal modeling using the Architecture Content Framework and the TOGAF Content Metamodel. This will enable support for the architecture tooling that the firm uses for its EA program.

The Chief Architect has stated that in order to model the complex manufacturing process it will be necessary to model processes that are event-driven. Also, in order to consolidate applications across several data centers it will be necessary

to model the location of IT assets. In particular, the end goal is to have the single ERP application running in a single data center.

Currently the project is in the Preliminary Phase, and the architects are tailoring the Architecture Development Method (ADM) and Architecture Content Framework to fit into the corporate environment.

Refer to the Scenario

You have been asked to recommend a response to the Chief Architect\’s request to tailor the TOGAF Content Metamodel.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. You recommend that the architecture team incorporate the Process Modeling and Infrastructure Consolidation extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. As the environment is process-centric this will enable them to model the manufacturing processes and store information to support regulatory compliance. It also includes views useful for managing the consolidation of applications into a single data center.

B. You recommend that the architecture team incorporate the Process Modeling and Governance extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. This is suitable as this is a significant IT change that will impact its operational models. This will ensure that they include specific entities and attributes that will allow them to model the event-driven nature of the manufacturing processes more precisely.

C. You recommend that the architecture team incorporates the Governance and Motivation Extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. This would allow modeling of the target milestones they want to achieve with this consolidation of application to a single data center. These extensions will also enable demonstration of regulatory compliance for the manufacturing process.

D. You recommend that the architecture team incorporates the Data and Services Extensions into their tailored Content Metamodel. This would allow modeling of the location of IT assets and ensure regulatory compliance for the manufacturing process. It will also allow for identification of redundant duplication of capability which will be needed for a successful consolidation to a single data center.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Scenario:

Please read this scenario prior to answering the Question

You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect at a major supplier in the automotive industry. The company is headquartered in Cleveland, Ohio with manufacturing plants across the United States, Brazil, Germany, Japan and South Korea.

Each of these plants has been operating its own planning and production scheduling systems, as well as custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant.

The company is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was determined that a significant

reduction in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current planning and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the Cleveland data center. This central system would provide

support to each of the plants replacing the functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some

cases, a third-party contractor could provide those staff.

The Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature, well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF 9.

At a recent meeting, the Architecture Board approved a Request for Architecture Work sponsored by the Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations. The request covered the initial architectural investigations and the development of a

comprehensive architecture to plan the transformation.

The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some of the plant managers have

expressed concern about the security and reliability of diving their planning and production scheduling from a remote centralized system. The Chief Engineer wants to know how these concerns can be addressed.

Refer to the Scenario

During the initial meeting of the Common ERP Deployment architecture project team, a number of alternative recommendations for how to proceed are put forward by members of the team. You have been asked to select the most appropriate

recommendation to ensure that the team evaluates different approaches to the problem and clarifies the requirements for the architecture.

Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. The team should develop Baseline and Target Architectures for each of the manufacturing plants, ensuring that the views corresponding to selected viewpoints address key concerns of the stakeholders. A consolidated gap analysis between the architectures will then be used to validate the approach, and determine the capability increments needed to achieve the target state.

B. The team should exercise due diligence and carefully research vendor literature and conduct a series of briefings with vendors that are on the current approved supplier list. Based on the findings from the research, the team should define a preliminary Architecture Vision. The team should then use that model to build consensus among the key stakeholders.

C. The team should use stakeholder analysis to understand who has concerns about the initiative. The team should then hold a series of interviews at each of the manufacturing plants using the business scenario technique. This will then enable them to identify and document the key high-level stakeholder requirements for the architecture.

D. The team should conduct a pilot project that will enable vendors on the short list to demonstrate potential solutions that will address the concerns of the stakeholders. Based on the findings of that pilot project, a complete set of retirements will be developed that will drive the evolution of the architecture.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Scenario: Glacier Ridge LLC

Please read this scenario prior to answering the question Glacier Ridge LLC is a vacation property management firm that is growing through acquisition. It manages over 200 resort properties across North America. Many of the resort properties use the same internal IT systems that they used before they were acquired. Until recently, the only requirement that has been placed en each property is that they use a standard financial reporting system to report their financials ID the headquarters on a weekly basis. The CEO has stated his concerns about the inefficiencies of the current approach and identified the need to change. He has defined a new strategic vision that will enhance the Glacier Ridge property business by standardizing its operations across the network to provide consolidated financial, human resources, logistics, sales and marketing, and yield management. He has also stated that he expects results by the end of the current fiscal year. These changes will provide the company with improved utilization of its capacity and more efficient operations. The addition of a corporate-wide data warehouse will provide analytics that will enable the marketing group to improve its ability to target advertising into key markets to improve yields. Glacier Ridge has mature enterprise architecture (EA) practice and uses TOGAF 9 as the method and guiding framework.

The CIO is the sponsor of the activity. In planning this change, the Chief Architect engaged the services of a well-known consulting firm that specializes in business strategy. An initial study has been conducted to identify the strategic changes needed to implement the CEO\’s vision. This recently completed with approval of a strategic architecture encompassing the entire firm, including detailed requirements and recommendations.

Based on the recommendations from the initial engagement, Glacier Ridge has embraced an Architecture Vision to adopt an enterprise application that is tailored to the needs of the hospitality industry.

Refer to the Glacier Ridge scenario Your role is that of Chief Architect. You have been asked to recommend the best approach to take in this architecture engagement to realize the CEO\’s vision. Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. Since the initial engagement has identified the need to change, you recommend that the team focus on defining the target architecture by going through the architecture definition phases (B-D). This will ensure that the change can be defined in a structured manner and address the requirements needed to realize the vision.

B. Since the vision is well understood and the strategic architecture agreed, you recommend that the target architecture is defined first, followed by transition planning. This will ensure that the current inefficiencies of the baseline architecture are not carried forward, and that the proposed solution addresses the requirements identified in the initial architecture engagement.

C. You recommend that this engagement define the Technology Architecture first in order to assess the current infrastructure capacity and capability. Then the focus should be on transition planning and architecture deployment. This will identify requirements to ensure that the projects are sequenced in an optimal fashion so as to realize the vision.

D. You recommend that the team focus on architecture definition, with a specific emphasis on understanding the strategic change parameters of the business strategy. Once understood, the team will be in the best position to identify the requirements, drivers, issues, and constraints for this engagement. You would ensure that the target architecture addresses non-functional requirements so as to help forecast future impacts.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Scenario: Sollace Manufacturing Please read this scenario prior to answering the question Sollace Manufacturing is a major supplier in the automotive industry, headquartered In Cleveland, Ohio with manufacturing plants in Chicago, Sao Paulo, Stuttgart, Yokohama, and Seoul. Each of these plants has been operating its own planning and production scheduling systems, as well as custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant. Sollace Manufacturing is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was determined that a significant reduction in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current planning and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the Cleveland data center. This central system would provide support to each of the plants replacing the functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some cases, a third-party contractor could provide those staff. The Sollace Manufacturing Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature, well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF 9. At a recent meeting, the Architecture Review Board approved a Request for Architecture Work from the Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations who is the project sponsor. The request covered the initial architectural investigations and the development of a comprehensive architecture to plan the transformation. The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some of the plant managers have expressed concern about the security and reliability of driving their planning and production scheduling from a central system located in Cleveland. The Chief Engineer wants to know how these concerns can be addressed.

Refer to the Sollace Manufacturing Scenario You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect for the Common ERP Deployment architecture project. One of the earliest initiatives in the Enterprise Architecture program at Sollace Manufacturing was the definition of a set of IT principles and architecture principles that are well aligned with the overall enterprise principles. These now need to be updated to address the concerns raised.

You have been asked to select a set of principles most appropriate for guiding the team to define a robust solution. [Note: You should assume that Sollace Manufacturing has adopted the example set of principles that are listed and defined in TOGAF 9, Section 23.6.] Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?

A. Common-use Applications, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data Security, Interoperability, Control Technical Diversity

B. Business Continuity, Service-orientation, Data is Accessible, Data Security, Responsive Change Management

C. Maximize Benefit to the Enterprise, Business Continuity, Common-use Applications, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data Security

D. Information Management is Everybody\’s Business, IT Responsibility, Data Trustee, Technology Independence, Responsive Change Management

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Scenario: MegaMart

Case Study Title (Case Study):

MegaMart is a Retail Chain which has expanded throughout India and the Far East.

The CEO and CIO decide that there is a crying need to put an Enterprise Architecture in place to realize MegaMart\’s strategy to expand its revenue and diversify. The CIO has evaluated and decided to go in for TOGAF9 and adapt it to his

enterprise requirements.

The Preliminary and Vision Phase have been completed.

As such very few architectural artifacts exist and the target architecture as of now is not very clear. As the Lead Architect how would you guide your team of architects for the Business Architecture definition?

A. In the first iteration start with the definition of the Target Business Architecture using a Top down Approach. Then keep on iterating in Phase B till the Target Business Architecture is refined before going to Phase C and Phase D. After Phase C and Phase D are over, iterate again to Phase B and define the baseline Business Architecture, analyze the gaps finalize the Architecture Definitions documents and proceed to Phase C and Phase D.

B. In the first iteration start with the definition of the Baseline Business Architecture using a Top Down approach. Define the Architecture Definition document after analyzing the impacts and reviewing with the stakeholders. Then proceed to Phase C and Phase D. In the next iteration finalize the Target Business Architecture and proceed to Phase C and Phase D.

C. In the first iteration start with the definition of the Baseline Business Architecture using a Bottom Up approach. Define the Architecture Definition document after analyzing the impacts and reviewing with the stakeholders\’. Proceed to Phase C and Phase D. In the next iteration finalize the Target Business Architecture, determine the gaps and the roadmap, and the impact and update the Architecture Definition document. after analyzing the impacts and reviewing with the stakeholders. Then proceed with the iteration.

D. In the first iteration start with the definition of the Target Business Architecture using a Top Down approach. Define the Architecture Definition document after analyzing the impacts and reviewing with the stakeholders proceed to Phase C and Phase D. In the next iteration finalize the Baseline Business Architecture, determine the gaps and the roadmap, and the impact and update the Architecture Definition document. After analyzing the impacts and reviewing with the stakeholders. Then proceed with the iteration.

Correct Answer: C