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Question 1:

Universal Containers\’ (UC) innovative apps division is releasing an application which can be installed in their trading partners\’ Salesforce environments. The application allows the trading partners to book containers from UC directly without leaving their own Salesforce environment. The partners can then build on top of the application with process builders and triggers so the container booking process can be integrated with the trading partners\’ own processes.

What is the recommended mechanism for releasing the application?

A. Change Sets

B. Managed Package

C. Unmanaged Package

D. Zip file deployable by Force.com Migration Tool

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Universal Containers (UC) is preparing for the new Salesforce release in a couple of months, and has several ongoing development projects that may be affected.

Which three steps should the team at UC take to prepare for this release? (Choose three.)

A. Upgrade any SOAP integrations to the newest WSDL as early as possible.

B. Contact Salesforce to schedule a time to upgrade the Full sandbox.

C. Review the release notes for automatically-enabled features and technical debt.

D. Refresh a Sandbox during the Release Preview Window to ensure they have the upcoming release.

E. Run regression tests in an upgraded sandbox to detect any issues with the upgrade.

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 3:

Universal Containers (UC) has a huge volume of metadata that cannot be deployed at once.

What is the recommended strategy for UC to be successful with the deployment?

A. Sort and group the metadata alphabetically and deploy them in the same order.

B. Use a combination of the Ant migration tool and change sets for deployment.

C. Identify metadata dependencies, create logical groupings, and deploy in the right order.

D. Use a continuous integration tool such as Jenkins to deploy the metadata.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Universal Containers is planning to release simple configuration changes and enhancements to their Sales Cloud. A Technical Architect recommended using change sets.

Which two advantages would change sets provide in this scenario? (Choose two.)

A. The ability to deploy a very large number of components easily.

B. An easy way to deploy related components.

C. A simple and declarative method for deployment.

D. The ability to track changes to components.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 5:

Universal Containers (UC) is about to begin development work on a new project in their Salesforce org that will take many months to complete. UC is concerned about how critical bugs will be addressed for existing live functionality.

What is the recommended release management strategy to address this concern?

A. Include fixes for critical bugs in the ongoing Development sandboxes so that they will be released with the other code.

B. Keep teams separate until the end of the project and create a Full Copy sandbox to merge their work then.

C. Utilize a dedicated developer pro sandbox to address critical bugs and release to production.

D. Address critical bugs in the Development sandboxes and push those changes to production separately.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Universal Containers has multiple minor and major releases in a year. Minor releases have simple configuration changes, while major releases involve a large number of complex code components.

What deployment tools should an Architect recommend for both types of releases?

A. Force.com IDE for minor releases and metadata API for major releases.

B. Change sets for both minor releases and major releases.

C. Change sets for minor releases and Force.com IDE for major releases.

D. Change sets for minor releases and metadata API for major releases.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Universal Containers (UC) has received feedback from the field on several new feature requests that are aligned with key business goals. UC is looking for a way to quickly get feedback and prioritize these requests.

Which two options should an Architect recommend? (Choose two.)

A. Create design standards around the new features being requested.

B. Send the requests to IT for a formal review at the end of the year.

C. Bring the feature request to the Test Manager to gain quality checks.

D. Present the feature requests at a Center of Excellence meeting.

E. Create a backlog or priority list in a project management tool.

Correct Answer: DE


Question 8:

Universal Containers is starting a Center of Excellence (CoE).

Which two user groups should an Architect recommend to join the CoE? (Choose two.)

A. Inside Sales Users

B. Call Center Agents

C. Executive Sponsors

D. Program Team

Correct Answer: CD


Question 9:

Universal Containers has multiple project teams building into a single org. The project teams are concerned with design conflicts and ensuring a common design process.

What should an Architect recommend to prevent this conflict?

A. Create a Center of Excellence Charter document.

B. Create a Release Management process.

C. Create Design Standards for Governance.

D. Create a backup system using Git Repositories.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Universal Containers has multiple projects being developed in parallel. One of the projects is in the testing phase, and the testing team found a list of issues on the items that will be deployed to production. As the project deadline is short, the customer team proposes that the fixes be done in the test sandbox and then deployed to Production.

What should the Architect recommend?

A. Recommend fixing the issues in the test environment and migrating the changes to the development sandbox.

B. Recommend fixing the issues in the development sandbox, migrating them to testing, and deploy to production after testing.

C. Recommend fixing the issues in the development environment and deploying the changes to production.

D. Recommend the customer team\’s proposal to fix the issues in the testing environment and deploy them to production.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Universal Containers has proposed using a Developer Edition org to stage changes to their Customer Community, which includes multiple custom Visualforce pages and components.

Which three risks should a Technical Architect consider in this strategy? (Choose three.)

A. Developer Edition orgs CANNOT have sandboxes, which will make team development difficult.

B. Developer Edition orgs have limited user counts and low data volume limits, which will make User Testing difficult.

C. Code changes CANNOT be deployed from a Developer Sandbox to Production.

D. Developer Edition orgs do NOT run on production servers, and will NOT perform well during testing,

E. Change Sets CANNOT be used to deploy from Developer Edition to Production, which will make deployment more complex.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 12:

Universal Containers (UC) is considering updating their Salesforce Release Management process.

Which three best practices should UC consider for version control? (Choose three.)

A. Automation is a must with various application branches in the repository.

B. Maintain a single entry point for production from the master branch.

C. Maintain unrestricted access to the release sandboxes for all changes being deployed.

D. Maintain separate developer branches for minor and major releases.

E. Maintain a single repository for applications with individual branches for projects.

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 13:

Universal Containers has automated its deployment process using Metadata API. However, they found that Metadata API does not support all the components yet.

What should be done to address this?

A. Deploy unsupported components manually before/after deployment.

B. Use AppExchange products to deploy unsupported components.

C. Use the Force.com IDE for deploying the unsupported components.

D. Use change sets for deploying all the unsupported components.

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Universal Containers has a stable continuous integration process and all stakeholders are happy. However, user testing takes a long time, as data has to be set up.

What should an Architect do to address this problem?

A. Train business users to create test data more efficiently.

B. Advise the project manager to assign more users to create test data.

C. Include automated sample data during deployment.

D. Test data creation is outside the scope of continuous integration.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which two project situations favor a waterfall methodology? (Choose two.)

A. An application with many systems and inter-dependencies between components.

B. An application with regulatory compliance requirements to be validated by outside agencies.

C. An in-house application with a fixed team size, but an open timeline and flexible requirements.

D. An application in post-production, with incremental changes made by a small team.

Correct Answer: AB


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Question 1:

You can monitor your Steelhead appliance disk performance using which reports? (Select 2)

A. Data Store Cost

B. Data Store Performance

C. Disk Load

D. SDR Hit

E. Disk Pressure

F. Disk Alarm

Correct Answer: AC


Question 2:

What information does the OVA package include about the Virtual Steelhead appliance? (Select 4)

A. Virtual disks

B. CPU

C. Memory

D. License

E. Storage

Correct Answer: ABCE


Question 3:

When deploying a Virtual Steelhead appliance, how much extra memory should be allocated for the extra VMware overhead?

A.3%

B. 4%

C. 5%

D. 10%

E. 2%

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

It is not recommended to use the same Steelhead appliance to optimize both replication traffic and general user traffic because:

A. Replication traffic uses 16 KB blocks and causes fragmentation in the datastore

B. User traffic may contain sensitive traffic and should not be mixed with other traffic

C. Replication traffic may cause admission control therefore affecting user traffic

D. The traffic pattern between the two types of traffic is generally very different and therefore the datastore may wrap more quickly affecting performance

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Two Steelhead appliances deployed in-path at different offices cannot auto-discover each other. What technique can be used to “force” the two Steelhead appliances to optimize traffic between each other?

A. Change the TCP port the Steelhead appliances use for their in-path connections to 7810

B. Disable the auto-discovery feature on the Steelhead appliances

C. Create auto-discovery rules that map to each Steelhead appliance\’s in-path IP address

D. Create fixed-target rules on each Steelhead appliance using the in-path IP address of the other Steelhead appliance, and use port 7800

E. Use the “enable probe” command from the CLI

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

What is configured in an Endpoint policy? (Choose the best answer)

A. Redundant Steelhead Mobile Controllers

B. In-path rules

C. Group IDs

D. Port labels

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

When using SSL, what is the purpose of peer authentication?

A. Register peers

B. Confirm the identity of the peer

C. Establish sessions

D. Verify the user permissions

E. Authenticate the client to the server

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

To configure a Steelhead appliance for logical in-path mode, the following must be enabled in the General Service Settings page:

A. Reset Existing Client Connections on Start Up

B. Enable L4/PBR/WCCP Support on Interface wan0_0

C. Enable Optimizations on Interface inpath0_0

D. B and C

E. A, B, and C

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

The Interceptor appliance cluster can support how many optimized connections?

A. 50,000

B. 100,000

C. 200,000

D. More than 200,000

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Under what circumstances would there be GRE traffic between the Interceptor and Steelhead appliances?

A. Throughout the entire lifespan of a connection

B. During connection teardown

C. During connection setup

D. GRE is not used but L2 is used during the entire connection

E. GRE is never used between the Interceptor and Steelhead appliances

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which of the following configuration policies are supported on the CMC appliance? (Select 4)

A. Security Policy

B. Optimization Policy

C. System Setting Policy

D. License Policy

E. Networking Policy

Correct Answer: ABCE


Question 12:

Which of the following best describes the way a CMC appliance policy can be created?

A. By creating new policies through the CLI

B. Policies can be created either manually, via a configuration fetch from a Steelhead appliance, or by copying another policy

C. By copying from a text file

D. Policies can only be created manually

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

The Home page in the Management Console for the CMC appliance can be configured to display what information?

A. Default login used by the CMC appliance for each appliance

B. Last hour of throughput across all managed appliances

C. Status of each individual alarm for each managed Steelhead appliance

D. Last 20 lines of a Steelhead appliance\’s system log file

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

An unwanted Steelhead appliance appears on the current connections list of one of your Steelhead appliances. How can you stop inbound connections from this unknown appliance from optimizing with your Steelhead appliances?

A. Create new peering rule(s) on your Steelhead appliances

B. Create new in-path rule(s) on your Steelhead appliance

C. Create IPSec tunnels between all of your Steelhead appliances

D. Reload all of your Steelhead appliances

E. Reload only the data center Steelhead appliance

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

You noticed the following entry in the logs. What is the cause of the problem?

A. Complete asymmetry

B. Server-side asymmetry

C. Client-side asymmetry

D. Multi-syn retransmit

E. SYN retransmit

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

When you install SAP HANA, which of the following disk size requirements apply? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. The log volume is at least four times the amount of memory (RAM) of the system.

B. The log volume equals the amount of memory (RAM) of the system.

C. The data volume equals the amount of memory (RAM) of the system.

D. The data volume is at least four times the amount of memory (RAM) of the system.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 2:

Which of the following privileges do you need to activate views? Please choose the correct answer.

A. SELECT option on the _SYS_BIC schema

B. SELECT option on the _SYS_BI schema

C. SELECT option on the _SYS_REPO schema

D. SELECT option on the _SYS schema

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Which of the following must you configure to enable monitoring of SAP HANA in DBA Cockpit? Please choose the correct answer.

A. The CCMS agent in SAP HANA

B. A database connection in the table DBCON

C. The CCMS connection in DBA cockpit

D. A database connection in DBA Cockpit

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which of the following authentication methods does SAP HANA support for http(s) access?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Choose:

A. X.509 client certificates

B. Header-based authentication

C. LDAP authentication

D. SAP logon tickets

Correct Answer: AD


Question 5:

Which of the following are required to enable SAP HANA high availability? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. SAP HANA distributed systems

B. SUSE Linux Enterprise High Availability Extension

C. Redundant storage and network

D. High-performance computing clustering for Linux

Correct Answer: AC


Question 6:

The log volume is full and the SAP HANA database does not accept any new requests.

How can you solve this problem and bring the SAP HANA database online?

Please choose the correct answer.

Choose one:

A. Run “Delete older backups” in the Backup Catalog.

B. Set the log_mode parameter to overwrite in global.ini.

C. Move the log files to another volume and create a symbolic link to the new folder.

D. Delete older log files from the log volume before the last successful database backup.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which of the following are advantages of using the SAP CO-PA accelerator? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Transforms data during the load step

B. Eliminates the need for customization

C. Provides business configuration

D. Reduces reporting time

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

Which of the following source data sizes should you use to size SAP HANA memory?

Please choose the correct answer.

Choose one:

A. Total compressed size of source database

B. Total uncompressed size of tables required for queries

C. Total uncompressed size of tables and indexes required for queries

D. Total uncompressed size of source database

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which of the following template roles allows a user who has been assigned this role to grant the privileges of this role to other users? Please choose the correct answer.

A. CONTENT_ADMIN

B. MODELING

C. PUBLIC

D. MONITORING

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which Linux kernel parameters need to be adapted during SAP HANA installation depending on the SAP HANA system size?

Please choose the correct answer.

Choose one:

A. net.ipv4.tcp_slow_start_after_idle and kernel.shmmni

B. fs.file-max and net.core.wmem_max

C. kernel.shmall and fs.file-max

D. net.core_rmem_max and kernel.sysrq

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You are reviewing the execution plan of an SQL statement. You want to find out which plan operators (POPs) have been executed in parallel and for how long each of them has been active. How can you accomplish this?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. Use the Visualize Plan functionality in the SAP HANA studio.

B. Use Job Progress in the SAP HANA studio.

C. Use Performance Trace in HDB admin.

D. Use EXPLAIN (graphically) in the DBA Cockpit.

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

What are the recommended ways to perform a database backup? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Use the./hdbsetup command

B. Use SAP HANA Studio

C. Use SQL commands

D. Use the BRBACKUP command

Correct Answer: CD


Question 13:

Which of the following can you use to update SAP HANA (SPS06)? Please choose the correct answer.

A. SAP HANA lifecycle manager

B. SAP HANA update wizard

C. SAP HANA on-site configuration tool

D. Software update manager (SUM) for SAP HANA

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

Which of the following components need a server certificate when you configure the SAP HANA Automated Update function? There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Host agent

B. SAP HANA studio

C. SAP HANA database

D. Update Manager

Correct Answer: AD


Question 15:

You have created a file named backup.sql with the following information to run a backup:

/c -n -i -u -p

BACKUP DATA USING FILE (\’backupDirectory/data/COMPLETE_BK\’)

Which of the following commands executes the backup?

Please choose the correct answer.

Choose one:

A. hdbsql -S backup.sql

B. hdbsql

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

When is the administration editor in SAP HANA studio opened automatically in diagnosis mode? (Choose two.)

A. When the system is restarting.

B. When the sapstartsrv service is not running.

C. When an SQL connection is not available.

D. When the index server service is restarted.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 2:

In the navigator tree of the SAP HANA studio, how can you find out which indexes are defined for table CUST_DATA from the SALES schema? (Choose two.)

A. Content node SALES schema node Tables folder right-click on the table CUST_DATA Open Definition

B. Content node SALES schema node Tables folder simple on the table CUST_DATA Open Definition

C. Content node SALES schema node Tables folder double-click on the table CUST_DATA

D. Content node SALES schema node Tables folder right-click on the table CUST_DATA Open Content

Correct Answer: AC


Question 3:

Which of the following must you implement for high availability in an SAP HANA production system? (Choose three.)

A. A name server on one active node

B. Index server processes on all nodes

C. Shared file system for all nodes

D. A statistics server on one active node

E. Data replication to the standby nodes

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 4:

An administrator should be enabled to cancel long running commands and end sessions.

Which privilege must the user be granted?

A. SESSION ADMIN

B. RESOURCE ADMIN

C. USER ADMIN

D. MONITOR ADMIN

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

You need to retrieve data from SAP HANA that is restricted to a certain region and specific users.

How can you implement this security strategy?

A. By assigning SQL privileges to the necessary users

B. By assigning system privileges to the necessary users

C. By assigning analytic privileges to the necessary users

D. By assigning package privileges to the necessary users

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

A backup catalog became unusable.

What can you do to recover existing backups?

A. Create a new data backup.

B. Recreate the backup catalog based on the available backup files with the tool hdbbackupdiag.

C. In SAP HANA studio Backup Editor Display all backups select REFRESH.

D. Use a third party backup tool to recover the backups.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What is the minimum required disk space for the data volumes of an SAP HANA system in relation to its memory (RAM)?

A. 4 * RAM

B. 1 * RAM

C. 3 * RAM

D. 2 * RAM

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

In Microsoft Windows, to which folder are the logs written by default during the SAP HANA studio installation?

A. %TEMP%\hdb_studio_

B. C:\Program Files (x86)\hdb_studio_

C. %USERNAME%\hdb_studio_

D. %USERPROFILE%\hdb_studio_

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

When does SAP recommend that you execute the first system backup?

A. After the first data load

B. After completing the post-installation steps

C. Before updating the system

D. After a complete load of master data

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which of the following connection types does Direct Extractor Connection (DXC) use to transfer data to SAP HANA?

A. Secondary database connection

B. BICS connection

C. http connection

D. RFC connection

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which of the following template roles are delivered in the standard system? (Choose two.)

A. IMPORT

B. MODELING

C. ADMIN

D. MONITORING

Correct Answer: BD


Question 12:

Which of the following sequences of steps is used to implement SAP HANA with SAP ERP?

A. Data Provisioning SAP HANA system setup Modeling Consumption

B. SAP HANA system setup Modeling Data Provisioning Consumption

C. SAP HANA system setup Data Provisioning Modeling Consumption

D. SAP HANA system setup Data Provisioning Consumption Modeling

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which of the following update scenarios can be selected for execution in the SAP HANA lifecycle manager? (Choose two.)

A. Apply support package stacks

B. Update the SAP HANA studio on local machines

C. Update SAP HANA lifecycle manager (HLM)

D. Update SAP HANA replication technologies components

Correct Answer: AC


Question 14:

Which of the following can you use to update SAP HANA?

A. SAP HANA on-site configuration tool

B. Software update manager (SUM) for SAP HANA

C. SAP HANA lifecycle manager

D. SAP HANA update wizard

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which of the following tools can you use to create and manage SAP HANA database users? (Choose two.)

A. hdbsql

B. Microsoft Active Directory

C. SAP Netweaver Identity Management

D. SAP Solution Manager

Correct Answer: AC


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Question 1:

You want managers to promote employees in the compensation profile.

Which of the following steps must you perform to configure this?

There are 3 correct answers

Choose:

A. Import the job code and pay grade mapping file.

B. Enable the job selector in the compensation template XML

C. Set up minimum and maximum guidelinesfor the standard promotion field.

D. Set up families and roles in Admin Tools.

E. Populate the JOBTITLE column in the user data file (UDF)

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 2:

Your customer has different compensation plan templates for stock and compensation. This customer therefore wants to use one combined compensation statement.

What can you use to achieve this?

Please choose thecorrect answer.

Choose one:

A. The interoperability option

B. Role-based permissions

C. The Secondary Plan option

D. The Assign Statement Groups option

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

In Admin Tools, you load a pay matrix table as shown in the attached screenshot. You map attribute 1 to business unit and attribute 2 department. On the compensation worksheet, an employee is in the Operations department, the ABC

business unit, and pay grade 3. The employee\’s current range penetration is calculated as exactly 100%.

What is the employee\’s current annual salary?

Please choose the correct answer.

Choose one:

A. 66000

B. 72000

C. 90000

D. 85000

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

You configure the following salary rule in the compensation plan template XML. 100.0<![CDATA[

You have exceeded the maximum of the salary range.

]]>

On the compensation worksheet, a planner enters a merit increase, which puts the employee\’s final salary over the maximum for the salary range.

How does the system behave?

Response:

A. The rule prevents the planner from saving the merit increase. The planner must go back and change their merit recommendation.

B. A popup message asks the planner if the exceeded amount should be assigned to lump sum. The planner can save the merit recommendation by selecting “Cancel” in the pop-up message.

C. The rule alerts the planner that the range penetration threshold has been exceeded and the merit field text turns red. The planner saves the merit recommendation.

D. A popup message asks the planner if the exceeded amount should be assigned to lump sum. The planner cannot save the merit increase by selecting “Cancel” in the pop-up message.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Your customer gives planners total discretion within their budget for merit planning and does NOT use guidelines. Your customer also prorates final payouts according to how many months the employee has been with the company.

How can you accomplish this?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Set the includeRaiseProrating option to “true” in the template XML and use imported proration.

B. Set the includeSalaryProrating option to “true”in the template XML and use imported proration.

C. Use the Admin Tools to configure raise proration for date-based proration.

D. Use the Admin Tools to configure salary proration for imported proration.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

Which of the field canyou use when you set up forced comments in the compensation plan template?

There are 2 correct answers.

Choose:

A. promotion

B. lumpSum

C. bonus

D. custom

Correct Answer: BC


Question 7:

Which of the following options reflects a best practice for configuring compensation plan guidelines?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Allow planners to enter negative salary adjustment recommendations.

B. Make sure the Enable Guideline Optimization checkbox is selected if your customer has less than 1,000 guidelines.

C. Always arrange guideline formulas in order by performance rating and compratio.

D. Add a formula without any criteria at the bottom of the guideline list to act as a default.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Your customer wants only users in Job Level A to be eligible for a one-time disbursement thatdoes NOT contribute toward final salary.

What can you do to fulfill this requirement?

There are 2 correct answers

Response:

A. Import the value TRUE in the LUMPSUM_ELIGIBLE column of the user data file (UDF) for all Job Level A users.

B. Create an eligibility engine rule in the Admin Tools that restricts Job Level A users eligible for Lump Sum.

C. Import the value FALSE in the LUMPSUM2_ELIGIBLE column of the user data file (UDF) for all users EXCEPT Job Level A user.

D. Create an eligibility engine rulein the Admin Tools that restricts non-Job Level A users from receiving Lump Sum 2.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 9:

Your customer has customized two compensation statements from the SuccessStore. One statement is used for employees in the Manufacturing department and the other is used for all other employees.

How do you make sure that the Manufacturing employees receive the proper statement?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Set default permissions for the statement template under Action for All Plans.

B. Make the Manufacturing statement template the default template.

C. Use role-based permissions in Admin Tools

D. Assign statement groups under Complete Compensation Cycle.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which actions can you control using role-based permissions?

There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

Should have chosen

A. View budget rollup information.

B. Read and write compensation data via executive review.

C. Exceed a merit guideline in a compensation worksheet.

D. View the compensation profile.

E. Change eligibility rules in a compensation plan template.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 11:

Your customer is setting up a stock factor table based on job level, as shown in the attached screen shot.

Which joblevel is properly configured?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. MGR_3

B. MGR_2

C. MGR_1

D. MGR_4

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Which actions can youperform on the Add/Edit Statement Templates screen in Admin Tools when creating a compensation statement from SuccessStore templates?

There are 3 correct answers. Response:

A. Reference the company logo URL and change the title of the statement.

B. Configure the statement to include conditional logic for the statement text.

C. Customize the statement text to fit your customer\’s company and culture.

D. Configure the statement for multiple languages.

E. Change the order of the compensation fields.

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 13:

You want to display the percentage of employees in each pay grade who are eligible to receive a stock grant.

Which of the following activities must you perform to do this?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Create an eligibility engine rule in the Admin Tools which defines stock eligibility by pay grade.

B. Create a custom stock field with a formula thatcalculates stock grant percentages per pay grade.

C. Upload a stock participation guideline table CSV file in the Admin Tools.

D. Import the value TRUE in the STOCK_UNITS_ELIGIBLE column of the user data file (UDF) for users with eligible pay grades.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

You have defined the eligibility rules as shown in the attached screenshot. Budgeting is done as a percent of the current salary. What can you see on the compensation form for an employee in Salary Plan PRM?

Please choose the correct answer. Response:

A. The employee appears on the form, is NOT included in the total budget basis and CANNOT receive an award amountin merit, adjustment or lump sum.

B. The employee does NOT appear on the form and their salary is NOT included in the total budget basis.

C. The employee appears on the form and is included in the total budget basis but CANNOT receive an award amount in merit, adjustment or lump sum.

D. The employee does NOT appear on the form but their salary is included in the total budget basis.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Which of the following can a user do to export all of the compensation data from SuccessFactors to another system?

Thereare 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. Select the Aggregate Export option from Compensation Home.

B. Select the Enable Roll-up Reports option in Advanced Settings.

C. Create a Compensation Planning ad hoc report.

D. Export the user data file (UDF) to send as a report.

Correct Answer: AC


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Question 1:

What is the maximum number of managed nodes indicated per symmetric multiprocessor (SMP)?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 50

D. 100

E. 200

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

What is the most recommended network time protocol (NTP) configuration for AppInternal Xpert?

A. Managed nodes use the embedded client and synchronize with a common server.

B. Managed nodes use the embedded NTP client and synchronize with symmetric multiprocessing (SMP).

C. Managed nodes use their own NTP client.

D. No specific NTP configuration is needed, as AppInternal Xpert could handle the correct timing by itself.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Each of the “dots” you see in the BrowserMetrix user interface represent:

A. An end-user page view

B. The web server tier

C. The web application

D. The server node for the transaction

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

The application performance metrics the AppResponse Xpert appliance collects are based on which of the following?

A. TCP turns

B. User response time

C. Server response time

D. Retransmission delay

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

What should be verified when configuring a switched port analyzer (SPAN) for AppResponse Xpert? (Select 4)

A. Only one direction of virtual local area network (VLAN) traffic is included.

B. All traffic from every server and end point is included.

C. Traffic before and after a firewall is included.

D. The SPAN interface isn\’t oversubscribed.

E. The interface speed and type.

F. The color of the ethernet cable.

Correct Answer: ACDE


Question 6:

What is the default limit for URLs that can be monitored?

A. 100 URLs

B. 1,000 URLs

C. 10,000 URLs

D. Unlimited

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Which modules are available with AppResponse Xpert v2000? (Select 2)

A. Web Transaction Analysis (WTA)

B. VoIP Monitoring module

C. CX-Tracer

D. Database Performance module

E. NetFlow Data Collection module

Correct Answer: AE


Question 8:

What is the Command-Line Interface (CLI) command used to filter traffic received by the appliance?

A. Capturefilter

B. Captureconfig

C. Monconfig

D. Monfilter

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What can be used on the AppResponse Xpert appliance if you wish to extend overall packet retention?

A. Snapshot buffer

B. Packets can be written to a storage area network (SAN) disk array

C. Rolling buffer

D. Packet extension buffer

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

Which type of alert should the user create if he wants to be alerted when any IP address in a group violates the alert condition?

A. Static

B. Static-any

C. Voice over IP (VoIP)

D. Hardware alerts

E. Software alerts

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

What are the main functions of AppResponse Xpert Database Browsing Insight? (Select 3)

A. Find top database servers and clients based on criteria such as response times, amount of data returned, and rate of kilobytes or packets returned.

B. Drill down into detailed data for specific databases, SQL statements, query commands, and other types of data.

C. Display if exists operations causing lock on databases.

D. View a time series chart for a specific metric, such as average response time.

E. Display the execution plan of SQL statments.

Correct Answer: ABD


Question 12:

What does the QuickRecode feature in AppTransaction Xpert do?

A. It reduces the number of turns in DEC (data exchange chart).

B. It allows the user to change traffic to a specific port as a specific protocol.

C. It allows the user to change the network effects.

D. It allows the user to reimport and redecode the trace.

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

When multiple types of delay (tier processing, bandwidth, and latency) occur simultaneously, the amount of delay is shown in the AppDoctor Summary of Delays as: A. Parallel effects

B. Congestion

C. Protocol delay

D. Network transfer delay

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

On the AppDoctor, which delay causes can be identifiied by default on the pie chart?

A. CPU utilization and memory leaks

B. Network, packet loss and parallel effects

C. Network, latency and server

D. The default pie chart displays only information about flows

E. Giant packets, runts and corrupted packets

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

Given that the gauge is at its maximum point, which of these statements apply? (Select 2)

A. The threshold values came from the data source, AppInternals Xpert.

B. The absolute worst response time in the dashboard\’s time range was 1.5 minutes.

C. The gauge is actually showing the minimum maximum value.

D. The gauge\’s value is the average of the maximum servlet response times for the dashboard\’s time interval.

Correct Answer: AD


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Question 1:

Which of the following best describes AppInternals Xpert heterogeneous transaction tracing?

A. Tiers with identical code are mapped and correlated for each transaction at run time.

B. Tiers with identical code are deduplicated and correlated for each transaction at run time.

C. Each trace includes all the tiers necessary to execute the transaction at run time.

D. Tiers that are identical in the same transaction are excluded at run time.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Which tab in the AppInternals Xpert interface do you use to enable continuous tracing for JIDA and .Net data adapter instances?

A. Metric Filters

B. Schedule

C. Users

D. Configure Groups

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

How should you instrument a Java application when a command line to start the application is not readily accessible?

A. This is not feasible currently.

B. Recompile or modify the code.

C. Set the JAVA_TOOL_OPTIONS environment variable to add the argument into the application start up.

D. We should not instrument applications that use embedded virtual machines.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

What is the most recommended network time protocol (NTP) configuration for AppInternal Xpert?

A. Managed nodes use the embedded client and synchronize with a common server.

B. Managed nodes use the embedded NTP client and synchronize with symmetric multiprocessing (SMP).

C. Managed nodes use their own NTP client.

D. No specific NTP configuration is needed, as AppInternal Xpert could handle the correct timing by itself.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

How do you control the overhead of AppInternals Xpert agents?

A. Install agents on a limited number of machines.

B. Restart the server.

C. Agents self tune so there is no need to control the overhead.

D. Never install more than 5 agents.

E. Use multiple consoles.

F. Unplug the server.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

With AppInternals Xpert, how are SQL queries captured?

A. An agent installed on the database

B. AppResponse Xpert Appliance capturing traffic

C. Agent installed on application server

D. Agent installed on web server

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

CX-Tracer is an AppResponse Xpert module designed for increased visibility into:

A. Real-time Citrix decodes

B. Optimized traffic response times through the Riverbed Steelhead CX model appliances

C. Front-end request to back-end connection mapping in Citrix XenApp environments

D. User-to-Citrix desktop mapping in Citrix XenDesktop environments

E. Citrix desktop server resource utilization measurements

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

How does AppResponse Xpert determine who the client is?

A. The network port

B. Higher Internet protocol (IP) address

C. Lower IP address

D. IP that initiates connection

E. The user must always define

F. It references a database table

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

AppResponse Xpert can be configured to mask out all sensitive information contained in key value pairs that might appear in observed web traffic. Where is this configured?

A. In the Java console, under Tools > Pages > Information Privacy Manager

B. In the Java console, under Tools > Pages > User Session Tracking Manager

C. In the web user interface under System > Pages > Information Privacy Manager

D. In the web user interface under System > Setup > Information Privacy Manager

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

The Information Privacy Manager:

A. Masks private data that appears in URLs in individual page views

B. Encrypts all packet captures stored on disk

C. Masks private data in the underlying packet-captured data

D. Stores all SSL private keys securely on the AppResponse Xpert appliance

E. Enables encryption policies for the web service API

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

What reference point is used to differentiate inbound vs. outbound metrics for the total traffic group?

A. Internal address list

B. Business groups

C. Applications

D. IP conversation

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which of these can be used to define business groups? (Select 3)

A. IP addresses

B. Hostnames

C. IP address range

D. Subnets

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 13:

Highlighting a business group in the business group table and then clicking on the tool bar menu to launch the Response Time Composition Chart will show:

A. The response time for the clients in the business group.

B. The response time broken into categories for the clients in the business group.

C. The response time broken into categories for servers in the business group.

D. The response time for the top ten IP addresses in the business group.

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

A user wants to simulate application performance across a Wide Area Network (WAN) serving multiple branch offices. The network tiers communicate over T1 links. Which module should the user select?

A. AppTransaction Xpert Multi User Quick Predict

B. AppTransaction Xpert Quick Predict

C. AppTransaction Xpert AppDoctor

D. AppTransaction Xpert QuickRecode

E. AppTransaction Xpert Data Exchange Chart

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

On the Data Exchange Chart tab, what does the arrow\’s direction indicate?

A. Packet loss

B. Latency

C. It has no meaning

D. Transfer time

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Your InfoCube contains the following Key Figures: Planned Amount, Budgeted Amount, Forecasted Amount, Planned Quantity, Budgeted Quantity and Forecasted Quantity. You want to reduce the number of Key Figures to only Amount and Quantity and still retain the uniqueness of key figure values? How can you accomplish this? There are 2 correct answers.

A. Create a new Dimension table containing a Characteristic to distinguish the key figure types.

B. Create three InfoCubes; one each for Planned, Budgeted and Forecasted key figure values.

C. Create Key Figures Amount and Quantity as non-cumulatives with virtual key figures to calculate the different types.

D. Use the Select option “Unique for Every Cell” in the distinguishing Characteristic.

Correct Answer: AD


Question 2:

Your customer wants to migrate SAP BW 3.x Data Flows to SAP BW 7.x data flows. What can they do to mitigate the risks of the migration? Please choose the correct answer.

A. Use emulation first to model the Data Flow with transformations and a data transfer process.

B. Create the Data Flow manually to create update rules and a data transfer process.

C. Use emulation first to model the Data Flow with update rules and a data transfer process.

D. Create the Data Flow manually to create transformations and a data transfer process.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which of the following does the data propagation layer of your SAP BW system offer? (2)

A. Ability to extract once and deploy many times

B. Fast load of mass data

C. A single version of the truth

D. Homogenized data

Correct Answer: AC


Question 4:

Which of the following are features of DSOs? (3)

A. They store unconverted OLTP data

B. They enable drilldown in reporting from InfoCube to the DSO

C. They enable overwrite functions for key figures and non-key figure characteristics

D. They are integrated with the Business Explorer (BEx)

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 5:

Which of the following actions must you perform to design the dimensions of an InfoCube when you want to accelerate query performance? (3)

A. Assign two characteristics that have an N:M relationship to different dimensions

B. Each dimension should have the same number of characteristics

C. Place the most selective characteristics first in the dimensions

D. Use the line item dimensions for characteristics with high cardinality

E. Assign two compounded characteristics to different dimensions

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 6:

Which of the following types of join are possible with an InfoSet? (3)

A. Union

B. Unbalanced

C. Temporal

D. Inner

E. Left Outer

F. Temporal

Correct Answer: DE


Question 7:

You have been asked to delete a request from an InfoCube. What best describes the situation? Select the correct answer.

A. You cannot delete the request since it is compressed.

B. You cannot delete the request if it has a red status.

C. You have to create Aggregates before you delete the request.

D. You must change the request status to green before you can delete.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

You have created a new Data Flow object in the graphical sAP BW data Flow tool by copying a Data Flow template. What must you do to use the new Data Flow? (1)

A. Copy non-persistent SAP BW Objects

B. Validate non-persistent SAP BW Objects

C. Activate non-persistent SAP BW Objects

D. Replace non-persistent SAP BW objects with active SAP BW objects

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

There is a need to extract millions of records from an Oracle database into BW for analysis. Which of the following represents the best ETL strategy? Select the correct answer.

A. Modify a BI Content DataSource to include the Teradata fields in the extraction.

B. Use the File interface to extract manageable files of no more than 20,000 records each.

C. Use a WebService DataSource to stream the records into the PSA of the DataSource.

D. Use DB Connect for the ETL process.

E. Use UD Connect for the ETL process.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

What are performance advantages when using an InfoCube instead of a DataStore Object? There are 2 correct answers.

A. Navigational attributes can be used.

B. Surrogate ID (SID) keys and DIM_ID keys are generated automatically.

C. Surrogate IDs (SIDs) replace master data values in dimension tables.

D. Reporting access to granular data using standard dimensions is faster.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 11:

Which of the following are standard aggregation types for Key Figures? (2)

A. Summation

B. Average

C. Last Value

D. Minimum

Correct Answer: AD


Question 12:

Your reporting end-users have noticed that several Basic InfoCube queries are staring to run more slowly. After examination of the InfoCube, you notice that 2 out of 7 user-defined Dimensions are approaching 50% the size of the Fact Table. What action should you take to resolve this? There are 2 correct answers.

A. Remodel the Cube by restructuring these 2 Dimensions as Line-Item Dimensions and rearrange their remaining Characteristics among the other Dimensions.

B. Remodel the Cube by restructuring these 2 Dimensions as Line-Item Dimensions and rearrange their remaining Characteristics in additional new Dimensions.

C. Remodel the Cube by moving the high-cardinality Characteristics from these Dimensions into one of these 2 Dimensions and the other Characteristics in the other Dimension.

D. Remodel the Cube by creating more Dimensions making as many of them as possible into Line-Item Dimensions and eliminate the remaining Characteristics.

Correct Answer: AB


Question 13:

You are not able to transport newly created queries from your development SAP BW system to production. Which of the following could be a possible problem. There are 2 correct answers.

A. The queries have not been written against a MultiProvider.

B. The queries not have an active version.

C. The queries are contained in the incorrect InfoArea.

D. The queries have not been assigned to a BEx transport request.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 14:

You want postable nodes in a hierarchy to appear in multiple hierarchy branches.

What action could you take to accomplish this? (2)

A. Enter the postable nodes as Link Nodes

B. Configure the hierarchy as time-dependent

C. Create multiple similar hierarchies

D. Configure the hierarchy with a time-dependent structure

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

What can you use to accelerate an SAP BW implementation project? Choose the correct answer.

A. SAP BW Data Warehousing Workbench

B. SAP BI Content

C. SAP BW Accelerator (BWA)

D. SAP BW Statistics

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

You want to be notified when BDoc messages are not executed properly.

What would you configure?

A. qRFC monitor

B. Error handler

C. Middleware broker

D. Subscription in admin console

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Business partners created in SAP CRM are not transferred to SAP ERP.

What do you need to do to resolve this CRM-Middleware-related problem?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Check erroneous BDoc messages in SAP CRM.

B. Check object management in SAP CRM.

C. Check erroneous BDoc messages in SAP ERP.

D. Check number range assignments in SAP ERP and SAP CRM for business partners.

E. Check RFC connections between CRM and ERP.

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 3:

Which profile is required in a business role to work with the Central Sharing Tool?

A. A specific layout profile

B. A specific function profile

C. A specific technical profile

D. A specific navigation bar profile

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which assignment in Customizing allows you to restrict users from creating personalized layouts of overview pages or tables in SAP CRM UI?

A. Assignment of a layout profile in navigation bar maintenance

B. Assignment of a layout profile in business role maintenance

C. Assignment of a function profile in authorization role maintenance

D. Assignment of a function profile in business role maintenance

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

Which of the following can you create using the Application Enhancement Tool?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Calculated fields

B. Database tables

C. Enhancement spots

D. Component enhancements

Correct Answer: AB


Question 6:

Your company runs SAP ERP and SAP CRM but does not utilize the SAP NetWeaver Portal or any other portal product.

What would you do if a SAP CRM user required access to the SAP ERP transaction “Display Bill of Material”?

A. Start the Virtual Machine Container.

B. Implement Single Sign-On certificates.

C. Use the transaction launcher.

D. Install the MapBox.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Which of the following is used to model complex objects for your customers within SAP CRM Service?

A. Product components

B. Installed base management

C. Package quotation

D. Warranties

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

You want to define when an action should be processed, for example, \’immediate\’, \’when saving\’, or \’using selection report\’.

Which of the following can you use?

A. Start condition

B. Post Processing Framework

C. Processing time

D. Schedule condition

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Which Customizing settings are required to bill an SAP CRM sales order?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Billing Relevance setting in CRM sales order Customizing

B. Billing Relevance setting in ERP sales item Customizing

C. Billing Relevance setting in CRM sales item Customizing

D. Item category determination of the CRM billing item category

Correct Answer: CD


Question 10:

In CRM Field Applications, which object is used to set up the sites and to influence the data distribution logic from a business perspective?

A. BDoc Modeler

B. Administration console

C. Mobile Application Studio

D. Object management

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

A customer plans to implement CRM Field Applications.

Which of the following functions and features are available on the customer\’s laptop without connecting to the back-end system?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Determination of prices and discounts

B. Determination of product availability

C. Maintenance of calendar entries

D. Creation of outbound deliveries

E. Creation of quotations

Correct Answer: ACE


Question 12:

You want to assign a key account manager to a customer.

How can you do this in the standard SAP CRM system?

A. Create a business partner template

B. Create a business partner relationship

C. Create an account hierarchy

D. Create an account classification

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

What is the function of business partner roles?

A. To identify the business partner number range

B. To specify the tax rate

C. To classify a business partner

D. To determine the responsible sales organization

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Through a marketing campaign call list, an agent made a call to a prospect, who expressed interest.

Which transaction types can the agent use to capture the prospect\’s interest?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Quotation

B. Opportunity

C. Activity

D. Lead

Correct Answer: CD


Question 15:

Which functions are available when you use the Opportunity of Type “sales methodology” in the standard SAP CRM system?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Assessment (questionnaire)

B. Offer management

C. Sales assistant

D. Marketing campaign reference

Correct Answer: AC


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Question 1:

A customer requires a report for employees with qualifications according to personnel are a. How can you

restrict the output to display only employees who actually have qualifications? Please choose the correct

answer.

Response:

A. Use the filter function to search for the personnel area.

B. Add the SPLIT_DATA_REQUIRED switch to the InfoSet.

C. Rewrite the Ad Hoc Query definition.

D. Add the DATA_REQUIRED switch to the InfoSet.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

What can you assign to a position or a job object using IT1005 (Planned Compensation)? Please choose

the correct answer.

Response:

A. Pay grade, pay scale or direct valuation

B. Default values of work schedule data

C. Percentages for alternative cost distribution

D. New relationships with other organizational objects

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

A customer wants to generate reports on payroll results in Ad Hoc Query. Which steps do you need to

configure to create payroll results infotypes? There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. Import cluster data into IT0267 (Additional Off-Cycle Payments)

B. Create and generate payroll infotypes

C. Assign calculation rules to payroll infotypes

D. Assign wage types to evaluation wage types

E. Define evaluation wage types

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 4:

You want to repeat the process of finding additional objects along the subordinate organizational structure.

What would you add to the following evaluation path?

O B003 S

S B003 A

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. B012 S

B. A A002 O

C. B002 O

D. B002 A

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

A customer asks you about the different Human Capital Management (HCM) solutions available in SAP.

Which solutions belong to SAP HCM?

There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. Capacity Planning

B. Workforce Process Management

C. Talent Management

D. End User Service Delivery (MSS/ESS)

E. Task and Resource Management

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 6:

Which of following master data fields are named in the definition of the authorization object P_ORGIN?

There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. Personnel Subarea

B. Employee Group

C. Employee Subgroup grouping

D. Employee Subgroup

E. Personnel Area

Correct Answer: BDE


Question 7:

A manager is in charge of two separate departments. The manager needs different access authorizations

for the master data of the employees in each department. Which authorization object must be activated?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. P_ORGINCON

B. P_APPL

C. P_PLOG D. P_PERNR

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

When is the Payroll Status infotype (IT0003) updated? There are 2 correct answers to this question. Response:

A. When the Personal Data infotype (IT0002) is updated

B. When the Cumulated Time Evaluation Results: Time Balances/Wage Types report is run

C. When a payroll run is performed for a payroll area

D. When a time evaluation is run for employees

Correct Answer: BC


Question 9:

During the payroll run, you discover that some employees are missing from the run but no warning or error messages are displayed. Which items would you check to find out why? (Choose two)

A. Payroll control record for incorrect personnel numbers

B. IT0008 (Basic Pay) for incorrect pay scale type/area assignment

C. IT0001 (Organizational Assignment) for incorrect payroll area assignment

D. IT0000 (Personnel Actions) for incorrect employment status

Correct Answer: CD


Question 10:

Response:

A. Create/delete cluster data

B. Filter for data

C. Format totals

D. Create/delete master data

Correct Answer: BC


Question 11:

You assign indirect valuation module TARIF to a wage type on table T511 (Wage Type Characteristics) to accomplish which outcome on IT0008 Basic Pay?

A. Propose the employee\’s pay scale group and level from T510

B. Propose wage type amounts from T510

C. Determine the amount of the Annual salary (ASAL)

D. Determine the amount of the Benefit salary (BSAL)

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

A work schedule rule must include half the normal work hours on Fridays and on half-day public holidays.

Absences and quota deduction are calculated in days. How would you reduce the daily quota

proportionally for an absence on one of these days?

There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. Set the counting rules to include 50% quota multiplier for hours.

B. Set the deduction rules to query the different holiday classes.

C. Set the counting rules to include a 50% quota multiplier for days.

D. Set the counting rules to query the different holiday classes.

E. Set the counting rules to query different conditions for the current day.

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 13:

You need to understand the concepts of Organizational Management. What are the functions of

Organizational Management?

There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. To depict structures such as organizational and reporting

B. To build the basis for the business workflow

C. To allow for planning organizational changes

D. To create hierarchical links to the HCM Enterprise structure

E. To transfer controlling information on cost to FI

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 14:

You want to assign leave entitlement for union groups according to their contracts. How can you configure

this?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. By creating different absence types and assigning them to the employee subgroups

B. By creating a dynamic action on IT2001 (Absences) to input the default values for the quota

C. By assigning a base entitlement rule to the Work Contract field on IT0001 (Organizational Assignment)

D. By assigning quota type selection rule groups and generating absence quotas

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which selection parameters can be used for the pre-program data medium exchange (DME) file? There

are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. Payroll area

B. Organizational unit

C. Company code

D. Personnel number

Correct Answer: AD